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Re: Potential vs actual infinity

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Subject: Re: Potential vs actual infinity
From: ross.a.f...@gmail.com (Ross Finlayson)
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by: Ross Finlayson - Sat, 20 Jan 2024 05:12 UTC

On Sunday, March 8, 2020 at 10:21:51 AM UTC-7, Ross A. Finlayson wrote:
> On Saturday, March 7, 2020 at 1:40:37 AM UTC-8, Ganzhinterseher wrote:
> > Am Samstag, 7. März 2020 02:22:20 UTC+1 schrieb Ben Bacarisse:
> >
> >
> > > I'm, not surprised -- a student might ask an embarrassing question
> >
> > That happens!
> >
> > > such as
> >
> > How can intelligent persons claim that all definable endsegments are in
> >
> > ∀k ∈ ℕ: ∩{E(1), E(2), ..., E(k)} = E(k) /\ |E(k)| = ℵo
> >
> > but nevertheless after subtracting them from the set of all endsegments, if such thing exists,
> >
> > ∩{E(x), E(x+1), E(x+2), ...} ?
> >
> > In fact I cannot excplain it, because also I can't understand that.
> >
> > Regards, WM
> This seems WM's break-through, acknowledging the one-way inference
> and the necessity of deductive inference, here about the space of
> the infinite, that such a thing exists.
>
> I can hold myself to that, too, besides the unbounded the infinite,
> that besides one-way inference there is a simple principle that
> besides the monotone of the finite, has a monotone of the in-finite.

Is it, though?

Subject	Author
Re: Potential vs actual infinity	Ross Finlayson