Hi, all. I'm looking at a dispensation that says the couple was granted permission to marry even though they were found to have been related in the third degree, not fourth (as originally stated). Can I pretty safely assume that this was a couple whose woman was of childbearing age? Or were couples of different degrees of consanguinity required to apply for a dispensation even if the woman was likely/certainly too old to have children? Or is there no safe assumption as the answers here varied from era to era, place to place, bishop to bishop, etc.? Have been reading about this but haven't yet found an answer to this particular question.

On 23-Dec-22 3:50 AM, Jinny Wallerstedt/Girl 57 wrote:
> Hi, all. I'm looking at a dispensation that says the couple was granted permission to marry even though they were found to have been related in the third degree, not fourth (as originally stated). Can I pretty safely assume that this was a couple whose woman was of childbearing age? Or were couples of different degrees of consanguinity required to apply for a dispensation even if the woman was likely/certainly too old to have children? Or is there no safe assumption as the answers here varied from era to era, place to place, bishop to bishop, etc.? Have been reading about this but haven't yet found an answer to this particular question.
>

The age of the prospective bride was not a consideration if she had
reached the minimum qualifying age. The belief that God is omnipotent
means that his will has no constraints, and therefore he may cause a
woman to conceive a child at any age - as with Elizabeth, the mother at
advanced age of John the Baptist (Luke's gospel says "they had no child,
because that Elisabeth was barren, and they both were now well stricken
in years").

Peter Stewart

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On Thursday, December 22, 2022 at 5:31:45 PM UTC-5, pss...@optusnet.com.au wrote:
> On 23-Dec-22 3:50 AM, Jinny Wallerstedt/Girl 57 wrote:
> > Hi, all. I'm looking at a dispensation that says the couple was granted permission to marry even though they were found to have been related in the third degree, not fourth (as originally stated). Can I pretty safely assume that this was a couple whose woman was of childbearing age? Or were couples of different degrees of consanguinity required to apply for a dispensation even if the woman was likely/certainly too old to have children? Or is there no safe assumption as the answers here varied from era to era, place to place, bishop to bishop, etc.? Have been reading about this but haven't yet found an answer to this particular question.
> >
> The age of the prospective bride was not a consideration if she had
> reached the minimum qualifying age. The belief that God is omnipotent
> means that his will has no constraints, and therefore he may cause a
> woman to conceive a child at any age - as with Elizabeth, the mother at
> advanced age of John the Baptist (Luke's gospel says "they had no child,
> because that Elisabeth was barren, and they both were now well stricken
> in years").
>
> Peter Stewart
>
>
> --
> This email has been checked for viruses by AVG antivirus software.
> www.avg.com
Thank you, Peter. I hadn't thought of it from this (essential) angle, and of course it makes sense. I'm looking forward to a time when, with more knowledge, I'll more naturally think of issues like this in their entire historical and cultural context. Wishing you happy and peaceful holidays.