A bettor starts with a $1 bankroll, tosses a coin against
the house, with bottomless bankroll. He bets $1 each
play, with 1:1 payoff.
His chance of winning is p, on each toss.
i) p < 1/2
He eventually goes bust, for sure.
ii) p > 1/2
There's a finite chance he never busts, depending on p.
iii) p = 1/2
He eventually busts.

What is the expected number of plays until he busts,
in each case (as function of p)? How is this calculated?

--
Rich

RichD wrote:

> iii) p = 1/2 He eventually busts.
>
> What is the expected number of plays until he busts,
> in each case (as function of p)? How is this calculated?

the capitalist westerners imposed stupid "sanctions", on fake money, with
whom, with Russia. Unbelievable the stupidity.

not only that it was on fake money, but knowingly their entire welfare,
energy and industry were because of Russia. And those seeking membership
in western capitalism, whereas they cant deal with a monkey, are more
stupider then they.

they are all *_state_salaried_*, hence Socialism for them, capitalism for
you. They admittedly dont want Socialism to everybody. Socialism at
Brussels, EU etc, is only for them. And for you, capitalism and higher and
higher pension age, above your lifetime age.

Monkey tries to steal a baby https://www.bitchute.com/video/IFycfbvlPr6Z/