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tech / sci.math / Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its own unprovability in F

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* There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its ownolcott
`* Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its ownRichard Damon
 `* Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its ownolcott
  `* Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its ownRichard Damon
   `* Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its ownolcott
    `* Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its ownRichard Damon
     +* Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its ownolcott
     |`* Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its ownRichard Damon
     | `* Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its ownolcott
     |  `* Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its ownRichard Damon
     |   `* Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its ownolcott
     |    `* Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its ownRichard Damon
     |     `* Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its ownolcott
     |      `* Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its ownRichard Damon
     |       `* Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its ownolcott
     |        `* Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its ownRichard Damon
     |         `* Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its ownolcott
     |          +* Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its ownRichard Damon
     |          |+* Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its ownolcott
     |          ||`- Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its ownRichard Damon
     |          |`* Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its ownolcott
     |          | `* Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its ownRichard Damon
     |          |  `* Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its ownolcott
     |          |   `* Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its ownRichard Damon
     |          |    `* Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its ownolcott
     |          |     `* Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its ownRichard Damon
     |          |      `* Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its ownolcott
     |          |       `* Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its ownRichard Damon
     |          |        `* Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its ownolcott
     |          |         `* Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its ownRichard Damon
     |          |          `* Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its ownolcott
     |          |           `* Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its ownRichard Damon
     |          |            `* Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its ownolcott
     |          |             `* Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its ownRichard Damon
     |          |              `* Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its ownolcott
     |          |               `* Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its ownRichard Damon
     |          |                `* Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its ownolcott
     |          |                 `- Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its ownRichard Damon
     |          `- Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its ownRichard Damon
     `* Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its ownolcott
      +- Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its ownRichard Damon
      `- Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its ownPython

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Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its own unprovability in F

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Subject: Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its own
unprovability in F
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From: Rich...@Damon-Family.org (Richard Damon)
In-Reply-To: <u21bg6$3d4tt$1@dont-email.me>
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Date: Sat, 22 Apr 2023 15:15:40 -0400
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 by: Richard Damon - Sat, 22 Apr 2023 19:15 UTC

On 4/22/23 3:11 PM, olcott wrote:
> On 4/22/2023 1:01 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>> On 4/22/23 1:13 PM, olcott wrote:
>>> On 4/22/2023 11:56 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>> On 4/22/23 12:45 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>> On 4/22/2023 11:36 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>> On 4/22/23 12:27 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 11:12 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 11:39 AM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 9:57 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 10:48 AM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 9:38 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 10:28 AM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 6:17 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/23 11:40 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/2023 9:45 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/23 9:41 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/2023 7:49 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/23 8:33 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> to its own unprovability in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> *If we assume that there is such a G in F that means
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> that*
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G is true means there is no sequence of inference
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> steps that satisfies G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G is false means there is a sequence of inference
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> steps that satisfies G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> *Thus the above G simply does not exist in F*
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> So?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I finally learned enough model theory to correctly link
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> provability to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> truth in the conventional model theory way.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Doesn't seem so, you don't seem to understand the
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> difference. You seem to confuse Truth with Knowledge.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I finally approximated {G asserts its own unprovability
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> in F}
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> using conventional math symbols in their conventional way.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Except that isn't what G is, you only think that because
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> you can't actually understand even the outline of
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Godel's proof, so you take pieces out of context.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G never asserts its own unprovability.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> The statement that we now have a statement that asserts
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> its own unprovablity, as a simplification describing a
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> statment DERIVED from G, and that derivation happens in
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Meta-F, and is about what can be proven in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Since Godel's G isn't of that form, but only can be
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> used to derive a statment IN META-F that says that G
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> is not provable in F, your argument says nothing about
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Godel's G.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F ⊢ GF ↔ ¬ProvF (┌GF┐).
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/goedel-incompleteness/#FirIncTheCom
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I have finally created a G that is equivalent to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Panu Raatikainen's SEP article.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> So?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Did you read that article?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Also, you don't understand what those terms mean,
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> because G being true doesn't mean there is no sequence
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> of inference steps that satisfies G in F, but there is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> no FINITE sequence of inference steps that satisfies G
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Because we can see that every finite or infinite
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> sequence in F that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> satisfies the RHS of ↔ contradicts the LHS a powerful F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> can infer that G
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> is utterly unsatisfiable even for infinite sequences in
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> this more
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> powerful F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Nope. Show the PROOF.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> You don't know HOW to do a proof, you can only do
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> arguement.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G in F such that G is logically equivalent
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> to its own unprovability in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> A proof is any sequence of steps that shows that its
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> conclusion is a
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> necessary consequence of its premises.\
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Boy are you wrong.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> A proof is a FINITE sequence of steps that shows that a
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> given statement is a necessary consequence of the defined
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> system.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> "Proof" doesn't have a  "Premise", it has a system.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> The statement may have conditions in it restricting when
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G in F such that G is logically equivalent
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> to its own unprovability in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is true then there is no sequence of inference steps
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> that satisfies G in F making G untrue.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> no FINITE sequence, making G UNPROVABLE, and there IS an
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> INFINITE sequence making it TRUE.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> This is possible.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is false then there is a sequence of inference steps
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> that satisfies G in F making G true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is false, then there is a finite sequence proving G,
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> which forces G to be true, thus this is a contradiction.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Because the RHS of ↔ contradicts the LHS there is no such
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Thus the above G simply does not exist in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Nope, because we can have an infinite sequence that isn't
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> finite, G can be True but not Provable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is false and ↔ is true this makes the RHS false which
>>>>>>>>>>>>> negates the RHS making it say (G ⊢ F) which makes G true in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>> Right, G can't be false, but it can be True.
>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>> Thus ↔ cannot be satisfied thus no such G exists in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>> Why do you say that?
>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>> I don't think you know what you terms mean.
>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G in F such that G is true if and only if G is
>>>>>>>>>> Unprovable.
>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>> Logical equality
>>>>>>>>> p q p ↔ q
>>>>>>>>> T T   T // G is true if and only if G is Unprovable.
>>>>>>>>> T F   F //
>>>>>>>>> F T   F //
>>>>>>>>> F F   T // G is false if and only if G is Provable.
>>>>>>>>> https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Truth_table#Logical_equality
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>> Row(1) There exists a G in F such that G is true if and only if
>>>>>>>>> G is
>>>>>>>>> unprovable in F making G unsatisfied thus untrue in F.
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>> Row(4) There exists a G in F such that G is false if and only
>>>>>>>>> if G is
>>>>>>>>> provable in F making G satisfied thus true in F.
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>> If either Row(1) or Row(4) are unsatisfied then ↔ is false.
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>> But if neither row values can ACTUALLY EXIST, then the equality
>>>>>>>> is true.
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> If either Row(1) or Row(4) cannot have the same value for p and q
>>>>>>> (for whatever reason) then ↔ is unsatisfied and no such G exists
>>>>>>> in F.
>>>>>>>
>>>>>> So, you don't understand how truth tables work.
>>>>>>
>>>>>> You don't need to have all the rows with true being possible, you
>>>>>> need all the rows that are possible to be True.
>>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> To the best of my knowledge
>>>>> ↔ is also known as logical equivalence meaning that the LHS and the
>>>>> RHS
>>>>> must always have the same truth value or ↔ is not true.
>>>>>
>>>>
>>>> Right, and for that statement, the actual G found in F, the ONLY
>>>> values that happen is G is ALWAYS true, an Unprovable is always true.
>>>>
>>>> Thus the equivalence is always true.
>>> I don't think that is the way that it works.
>>> We must assume that the RHS is true and see how that effects the LHS
>>> We must assume that the RHS is false and see how that effects the LHS
>>> ((True(RHS) → True(LHS)) ∧ (False(RHS) → False(LHS))) ≡ (RHS ↔ LHS)
>>> False(RHS) → True(LHS) refutes (RHS ↔ LHS)
>>>
>>
>> Nope, that isn't how it works.
>>
>> Can you show me something that says that is how it works?
>
> p ↔ q would seem to mean ((p → q) ∧ (q → p))
> Here is a much clearer and conventional way of showing that
>
> Logical implication derives logical equivalence
> p---q---(p ⇒ q)---(q ⇒ p)---(q ↔ p)
> T---T------T----------T---------T
> T---F------F----------T---------F
> F---T------T----------F---------F
> F---F------T----------T---------T
>
>


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Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its own unprovability in F

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https://www.novabbs.com/tech/article-flat.php?id=132845&group=sci.math#132845

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From: polco...@gmail.com (olcott)
Newsgroups: sci.logic,sci.math,alt.philosophy,comp.theory,comp.ai.philosophy
Subject: Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its own
unprovability in F
Date: Sat, 22 Apr 2023 14:34:22 -0500
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 by: olcott - Sat, 22 Apr 2023 19:34 UTC

On 4/22/2023 2:15 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
> On 4/22/23 3:11 PM, olcott wrote:
>> On 4/22/2023 1:01 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>> On 4/22/23 1:13 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>> On 4/22/2023 11:56 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>> On 4/22/23 12:45 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 11:36 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 12:27 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 11:12 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 11:39 AM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 9:57 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 10:48 AM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 9:38 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 10:28 AM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 6:17 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/23 11:40 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/2023 9:45 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/23 9:41 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/2023 7:49 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/23 8:33 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> to its own unprovability in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> *If we assume that there is such a G in F that means
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> that*
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G is true means there is no sequence of inference
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> steps that satisfies G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G is false means there is a sequence of inference
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> steps that satisfies G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> *Thus the above G simply does not exist in F*
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> So?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I finally learned enough model theory to correctly
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> link provability to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> truth in the conventional model theory way.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Doesn't seem so, you don't seem to understand the
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> difference. You seem to confuse Truth with Knowledge.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I finally approximated {G asserts its own
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> unprovability in F}
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> using conventional math symbols in their conventional
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> way.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Except that isn't what G is, you only think that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> because you can't actually understand even the outline
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> of Godel's proof, so you take pieces out of context.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G never asserts its own unprovability.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> The statement that we now have a statement that asserts
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> its own unprovablity, as a simplification describing a
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> statment DERIVED from G, and that derivation happens in
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Meta-F, and is about what can be proven in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Since Godel's G isn't of that form, but only can be
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> used to derive a statment IN META-F that says that G
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> is not provable in F, your argument says nothing
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> about Godel's G.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F ⊢ GF ↔ ¬ProvF (┌GF┐).
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/goedel-incompleteness/#FirIncTheCom
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I have finally created a G that is equivalent to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Panu Raatikainen's SEP article.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> So?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Did you read that article?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Also, you don't understand what those terms mean,
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> because G being true doesn't mean there is no
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> sequence of inference steps that satisfies G in F,
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> but there is no FINITE sequence of inference steps
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> that satisfies G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Because we can see that every finite or infinite
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> sequence in F that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> satisfies the RHS of ↔ contradicts the LHS a powerful
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F can infer that G
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> is utterly unsatisfiable even for infinite sequences
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> in this more
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> powerful F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Nope. Show the PROOF.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> You don't know HOW to do a proof, you can only do
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> arguement.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G in F such that G is logically
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> equivalent to its own unprovability in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> A proof is any sequence of steps that shows that its
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> conclusion is a
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> necessary consequence of its premises.\
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Boy are you wrong.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> A proof is a FINITE sequence of steps that shows that a
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> given statement is a necessary consequence of the defined
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> system.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> "Proof" doesn't have a  "Premise", it has a system.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> The statement may have conditions in it restricting when
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G in F such that G is logically
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> equivalent to its own unprovability in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is true then there is no sequence of inference
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> steps that satisfies G in F making G untrue.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> no FINITE sequence, making G UNPROVABLE, and there IS an
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> INFINITE sequence making it TRUE.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> This is possible.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is false then there is a sequence of inference
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> steps that satisfies G in F making G true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is false, then there is a finite sequence proving G,
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> which forces G to be true, thus this is a contradiction.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Because the RHS of ↔ contradicts the LHS there is no
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> such G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Thus the above G simply does not exist in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Nope, because we can have an infinite sequence that isn't
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> finite, G can be True but not Provable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is false and ↔ is true this makes the RHS false which
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> negates the RHS making it say (G ⊢ F) which makes G true
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>> Right, G can't be false, but it can be True.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>> Thus ↔ cannot be satisfied thus no such G exists in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>> Why do you say that?
>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>> I don't think you know what you terms mean.
>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G in F such that G is true if and only if G is
>>>>>>>>>>> Unprovable.
>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>> Logical equality
>>>>>>>>>> p q p ↔ q
>>>>>>>>>> T T   T // G is true if and only if G is Unprovable.
>>>>>>>>>> T F   F //
>>>>>>>>>> F T   F //
>>>>>>>>>> F F   T // G is false if and only if G is Provable.
>>>>>>>>>> https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Truth_table#Logical_equality
>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>> Row(1) There exists a G in F such that G is true if and only
>>>>>>>>>> if G is
>>>>>>>>>> unprovable in F making G unsatisfied thus untrue in F.
>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>> Row(4) There exists a G in F such that G is false if and only
>>>>>>>>>> if G is
>>>>>>>>>> provable in F making G satisfied thus true in F.
>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>> If either Row(1) or Row(4) are unsatisfied then ↔ is false.
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>> But if neither row values can ACTUALLY EXIST, then the equality
>>>>>>>>> is true.
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>> If either Row(1) or Row(4) cannot have the same value for p and q
>>>>>>>> (for whatever reason) then ↔ is unsatisfied and no such G exists
>>>>>>>> in F.
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> So, you don't understand how truth tables work.
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> You don't need to have all the rows with true being possible, you
>>>>>>> need all the rows that are possible to be True.
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>> To the best of my knowledge
>>>>>> ↔ is also known as logical equivalence meaning that the LHS and
>>>>>> the RHS
>>>>>> must always have the same truth value or ↔ is not true.
>>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> Right, and for that statement, the actual G found in F, the ONLY
>>>>> values that happen is G is ALWAYS true, an Unprovable is always true.
>>>>>
>>>>> Thus the equivalence is always true.
>>>> I don't think that is the way that it works.
>>>> We must assume that the RHS is true and see how that effects the LHS
>>>> We must assume that the RHS is false and see how that effects the LHS
>>>> ((True(RHS) → True(LHS)) ∧ (False(RHS) → False(LHS))) ≡ (RHS ↔ LHS)
>>>> False(RHS) → True(LHS) refutes (RHS ↔ LHS)
>>>>
>>>
>>> Nope, that isn't how it works.
>>>
>>> Can you show me something that says that is how it works?
>>
>> p ↔ q would seem to mean ((p → q) ∧ (q → p))
>> Here is a much clearer and conventional way of showing that
>>
>> Logical implication derives logical equivalence
>> p---q---(p ⇒ q)---(q ⇒ p)---(q ↔ p)
>> T---T------T----------T---------T
>> T---F------F----------T---------F
>> F---T------T----------F---------F
>> F---F------T----------T---------T
>>
>>
>
> So, why does the fact that the last line is never used in this case
> cause a problem.
>


Click here to read the complete article
Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its own unprovability in F

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Subject: Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its own
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From: Rich...@Damon-Family.org (Richard Damon)
In-Reply-To: <u21crv$3da13$1@dont-email.me>
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Date: Sat, 22 Apr 2023 15:44:41 -0400
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 by: Richard Damon - Sat, 22 Apr 2023 19:44 UTC

On 4/22/23 3:34 PM, olcott wrote:
> On 4/22/2023 2:15 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>> On 4/22/23 3:11 PM, olcott wrote:
>>> On 4/22/2023 1:01 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>> On 4/22/23 1:13 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>> On 4/22/2023 11:56 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>> On 4/22/23 12:45 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 11:36 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 12:27 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 11:12 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 11:39 AM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 9:57 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 10:48 AM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 9:38 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 10:28 AM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 6:17 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/23 11:40 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/2023 9:45 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/23 9:41 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/2023 7:49 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/23 8:33 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G such that G is logically
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> equivalent to its own unprovability in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> *If we assume that there is such a G in F that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> means that*
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G is true means there is no sequence of inference
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> steps that satisfies G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G is false means there is a sequence of inference
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> steps that satisfies G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> *Thus the above G simply does not exist in F*
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> So?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I finally learned enough model theory to correctly
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> link provability to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> truth in the conventional model theory way.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Doesn't seem so, you don't seem to understand the
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> difference. You seem to confuse Truth with Knowledge.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I finally approximated {G asserts its own
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> unprovability in F}
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> using conventional math symbols in their conventional
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> way.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Except that isn't what G is, you only think that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> because you can't actually understand even the outline
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> of Godel's proof, so you take pieces out of context.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G never asserts its own unprovability.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> The statement that we now have a statement that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> asserts its own unprovablity, as a simplification
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> describing a statment DERIVED from G, and that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> derivation happens in Meta-F, and is about what can be
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> proven in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Since Godel's G isn't of that form, but only can be
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> used to derive a statment IN META-F that says that G
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> is not provable in F, your argument says nothing
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> about Godel's G.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F ⊢ GF ↔ ¬ProvF (┌GF┐).
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/goedel-incompleteness/#FirIncTheCom
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I have finally created a G that is equivalent to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Panu Raatikainen's SEP article.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> So?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Did you read that article?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Also, you don't understand what those terms mean,
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> because G being true doesn't mean there is no
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> sequence of inference steps that satisfies G in F,
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> but there is no FINITE sequence of inference steps
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> that satisfies G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Because we can see that every finite or infinite
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> sequence in F that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> satisfies the RHS of ↔ contradicts the LHS a powerful
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F can infer that G
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> is utterly unsatisfiable even for infinite sequences
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> in this more
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> powerful F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Nope. Show the PROOF.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> You don't know HOW to do a proof, you can only do
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> arguement.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G in F such that G is logically
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> equivalent to its own unprovability in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> A proof is any sequence of steps that shows that its
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> conclusion is a
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> necessary consequence of its premises.\
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Boy are you wrong.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> A proof is a FINITE sequence of steps that shows that a
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> given statement is a necessary consequence of the
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> defined system.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> "Proof" doesn't have a  "Premise", it has a system.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> The statement may have conditions in it restricting when
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G in F such that G is logically
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> equivalent to its own unprovability in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is true then there is no sequence of inference
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> steps that satisfies G in F making G untrue.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> no FINITE sequence, making G UNPROVABLE, and there IS an
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> INFINITE sequence making it TRUE.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> This is possible.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is false then there is a sequence of inference
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> steps that satisfies G in F making G true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is false, then there is a finite sequence proving
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G, which forces G to be true, thus this is a contradiction.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Because the RHS of ↔ contradicts the LHS there is no
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> such G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Thus the above G simply does not exist in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Nope, because we can have an infinite sequence that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> isn't finite, G can be True but not Provable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is false and ↔ is true this makes the RHS false
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> which negates the RHS making it say (G ⊢ F) which makes G
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> true in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Right, G can't be false, but it can be True.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>> Thus ↔ cannot be satisfied thus no such G exists in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>> Why do you say that?
>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>> I don't think you know what you terms mean.
>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G in F such that G is true if and only if G
>>>>>>>>>>>> is Unprovable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>> Logical equality
>>>>>>>>>>> p q p ↔ q
>>>>>>>>>>> T T   T // G is true if and only if G is Unprovable.
>>>>>>>>>>> T F   F //
>>>>>>>>>>> F T   F //
>>>>>>>>>>> F F   T // G is false if and only if G is Provable.
>>>>>>>>>>> https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Truth_table#Logical_equality
>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>> Row(1) There exists a G in F such that G is true if and only
>>>>>>>>>>> if G is
>>>>>>>>>>> unprovable in F making G unsatisfied thus untrue in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>> Row(4) There exists a G in F such that G is false if and only
>>>>>>>>>>> if G is
>>>>>>>>>>> provable in F making G satisfied thus true in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>> If either Row(1) or Row(4) are unsatisfied then ↔ is false.
>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>> But if neither row values can ACTUALLY EXIST, then the
>>>>>>>>>> equality is true.
>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>> If either Row(1) or Row(4) cannot have the same value for p and q
>>>>>>>>> (for whatever reason) then ↔ is unsatisfied and no such G
>>>>>>>>> exists in F.
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>> So, you don't understand how truth tables work.
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>> You don't need to have all the rows with true being possible,
>>>>>>>> you need all the rows that are possible to be True.
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> To the best of my knowledge
>>>>>>> ↔ is also known as logical equivalence meaning that the LHS and
>>>>>>> the RHS
>>>>>>> must always have the same truth value or ↔ is not true.
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>> Right, and for that statement, the actual G found in F, the ONLY
>>>>>> values that happen is G is ALWAYS true, an Unprovable is always true.
>>>>>>
>>>>>> Thus the equivalence is always true.
>>>>> I don't think that is the way that it works.
>>>>> We must assume that the RHS is true and see how that effects the LHS
>>>>> We must assume that the RHS is false and see how that effects the LHS
>>>>> ((True(RHS) → True(LHS)) ∧ (False(RHS) → False(LHS))) ≡ (RHS ↔ LHS)
>>>>> False(RHS) → True(LHS) refutes (RHS ↔ LHS)
>>>>>
>>>>
>>>> Nope, that isn't how it works.
>>>>
>>>> Can you show me something that says that is how it works?
>>>
>>> p ↔ q would seem to mean ((p → q) ∧ (q → p))
>>> Here is a much clearer and conventional way of showing that
>>>
>>> Logical implication derives logical equivalence
>>> p---q---(p ⇒ q)---(q ⇒ p)---(q ↔ p)
>>> T---T------T----------T---------T
>>> T---F------F----------T---------F
>>> F---T------T----------F---------F
>>> F---F------T----------T---------T
>>>
>>>
>>
>> So, why does the fact that the last line is never used in this case
>> cause a problem.
>>
>
> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>
> I am just saying that according to the conventional rules of logic the
> above expression is simply false. There is no G that is logically
> equivalent to its own unprovability in F.
>


Click here to read the complete article
Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its own unprovability in F

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From: polco...@gmail.com (olcott)
Newsgroups: sci.logic,sci.math,alt.philosophy,comp.theory,comp.ai.philosophy
Subject: Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its own
unprovability in F
Date: Sat, 22 Apr 2023 14:54:02 -0500
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In-Reply-To: <JOW0M.508208$Ldj8.62327@fx47.iad>
 by: olcott - Sat, 22 Apr 2023 19:54 UTC

On 4/22/2023 2:44 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
> On 4/22/23 3:34 PM, olcott wrote:
>> On 4/22/2023 2:15 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>> On 4/22/23 3:11 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>> On 4/22/2023 1:01 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>> On 4/22/23 1:13 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 11:56 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 12:45 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 11:36 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 12:27 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 11:12 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 11:39 AM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 9:57 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 10:48 AM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 9:38 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 10:28 AM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 6:17 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/23 11:40 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/2023 9:45 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/23 9:41 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/2023 7:49 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/23 8:33 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G such that G is logically
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> equivalent to its own unprovability in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> *If we assume that there is such a G in F that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> means that*
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G is true means there is no sequence of inference
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> steps that satisfies G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G is false means there is a sequence of inference
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> steps that satisfies G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> *Thus the above G simply does not exist in F*
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> So?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I finally learned enough model theory to correctly
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> link provability to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> truth in the conventional model theory way.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Doesn't seem so, you don't seem to understand the
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> difference. You seem to confuse Truth with Knowledge.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I finally approximated {G asserts its own
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> unprovability in F}
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> using conventional math symbols in their
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> conventional way.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Except that isn't what G is, you only think that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> because you can't actually understand even the
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> outline of Godel's proof, so you take pieces out of
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> context.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G never asserts its own unprovability.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> The statement that we now have a statement that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> asserts its own unprovablity, as a simplification
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> describing a statment DERIVED from G, and that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> derivation happens in Meta-F, and is about what can
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> be proven in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Since Godel's G isn't of that form, but only can be
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> used to derive a statment IN META-F that says that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G is not provable in F, your argument says nothing
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> about Godel's G.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F ⊢ GF ↔ ¬ProvF (┌GF┐).
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/goedel-incompleteness/#FirIncTheCom
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I have finally created a G that is equivalent to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Panu Raatikainen's SEP article.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> So?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Did you read that article?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Also, you don't understand what those terms mean,
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> because G being true doesn't mean there is no
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> sequence of inference steps that satisfies G in F,
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> but there is no FINITE sequence of inference steps
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> that satisfies G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Because we can see that every finite or infinite
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> sequence in F that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> satisfies the RHS of ↔ contradicts the LHS a
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> powerful F can infer that G
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> is utterly unsatisfiable even for infinite sequences
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> in this more
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> powerful F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Nope. Show the PROOF.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> You don't know HOW to do a proof, you can only do
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> arguement.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G in F such that G is logically
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> equivalent to its own unprovability in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> A proof is any sequence of steps that shows that its
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> conclusion is a
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> necessary consequence of its premises.\
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Boy are you wrong.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> A proof is a FINITE sequence of steps that shows that a
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> given statement is a necessary consequence of the
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> defined system.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> "Proof" doesn't have a  "Premise", it has a system.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> The statement may have conditions in it restricting when
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G in F such that G is logically
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> equivalent to its own unprovability in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is true then there is no sequence of inference
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> steps that satisfies G in F making G untrue.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> no FINITE sequence, making G UNPROVABLE, and there IS
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> an INFINITE sequence making it TRUE.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> This is possible.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is false then there is a sequence of inference
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> steps that satisfies G in F making G true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is false, then there is a finite sequence proving
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G, which forces G to be true, thus this is a
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> contradiction.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Because the RHS of ↔ contradicts the LHS there is no
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> such G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Thus the above G simply does not exist in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Nope, because we can have an infinite sequence that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> isn't finite, G can be True but not Provable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is false and ↔ is true this makes the RHS false
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> which negates the RHS making it say (G ⊢ F) which makes
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G true in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Right, G can't be false, but it can be True.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Thus ↔ cannot be satisfied thus no such G exists in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>> Why do you say that?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>> I don't think you know what you terms mean.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G in F such that G is true if and only if G
>>>>>>>>>>>>> is Unprovable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>> Logical equality
>>>>>>>>>>>> p q p ↔ q
>>>>>>>>>>>> T T   T // G is true if and only if G is Unprovable.
>>>>>>>>>>>> T F   F //
>>>>>>>>>>>> F T   F //
>>>>>>>>>>>> F F   T // G is false if and only if G is Provable.
>>>>>>>>>>>> https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Truth_table#Logical_equality
>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>> Row(1) There exists a G in F such that G is true if and only
>>>>>>>>>>>> if G is
>>>>>>>>>>>> unprovable in F making G unsatisfied thus untrue in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>> Row(4) There exists a G in F such that G is false if and
>>>>>>>>>>>> only if G is
>>>>>>>>>>>> provable in F making G satisfied thus true in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>> If either Row(1) or Row(4) are unsatisfied then ↔ is false.
>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>> But if neither row values can ACTUALLY EXIST, then the
>>>>>>>>>>> equality is true.
>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>> If either Row(1) or Row(4) cannot have the same value for p and q
>>>>>>>>>> (for whatever reason) then ↔ is unsatisfied and no such G
>>>>>>>>>> exists in F.
>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>> So, you don't understand how truth tables work.
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>> You don't need to have all the rows with true being possible,
>>>>>>>>> you need all the rows that are possible to be True.
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>> To the best of my knowledge
>>>>>>>> ↔ is also known as logical equivalence meaning that the LHS and
>>>>>>>> the RHS
>>>>>>>> must always have the same truth value or ↔ is not true.
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> Right, and for that statement, the actual G found in F, the ONLY
>>>>>>> values that happen is G is ALWAYS true, an Unprovable is always
>>>>>>> true.
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> Thus the equivalence is always true.
>>>>>> I don't think that is the way that it works.
>>>>>> We must assume that the RHS is true and see how that effects the LHS
>>>>>> We must assume that the RHS is false and see how that effects the LHS
>>>>>> ((True(RHS) → True(LHS)) ∧ (False(RHS) → False(LHS))) ≡ (RHS ↔ LHS)
>>>>>> False(RHS) → True(LHS) refutes (RHS ↔ LHS)
>>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> Nope, that isn't how it works.
>>>>>
>>>>> Can you show me something that says that is how it works?
>>>>
>>>> p ↔ q would seem to mean ((p → q) ∧ (q → p))
>>>> Here is a much clearer and conventional way of showing that
>>>>
>>>> Logical implication derives logical equivalence
>>>> p---q---(p ⇒ q)---(q ⇒ p)---(q ↔ p)
>>>> T---T------T----------T---------T
>>>> T---F------F----------T---------F
>>>> F---T------T----------F---------F
>>>> F---F------T----------T---------T
>>>>
>>>>
>>>
>>> So, why does the fact that the last line is never used in this case
>>> cause a problem.
>>>
>>
>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>
>> I am just saying that according to the conventional rules of logic the
>> above expression is simply false. There is no G that is logically
>> equivalent to its own unprovability in F.
>>
>
> But Godel's G satisfies that.
>
> Remember, G is the statement that there does not exist a number g such
> that g statisifes a particular Primative Recursive Relationship (built
> in Meta-F, but using only operations defined in F).
>
There is no such G in F says the same thing, yet does not falsely place
the blame on F.


Click here to read the complete article
Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its own unprovability in F

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Subject: Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its own
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From: Rich...@Damon-Family.org (Richard Damon)
In-Reply-To: <u21e0q$3da13$2@dont-email.me>
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Date: Sat, 22 Apr 2023 16:00:26 -0400
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 by: Richard Damon - Sat, 22 Apr 2023 20:00 UTC

On 4/22/23 3:54 PM, olcott wrote:
> On 4/22/2023 2:44 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>> On 4/22/23 3:34 PM, olcott wrote:
>>> On 4/22/2023 2:15 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>> On 4/22/23 3:11 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>> On 4/22/2023 1:01 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>> On 4/22/23 1:13 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 11:56 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 12:45 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 11:36 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 12:27 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 11:12 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 11:39 AM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 9:57 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 10:48 AM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 9:38 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 10:28 AM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 6:17 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/23 11:40 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/2023 9:45 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/23 9:41 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/2023 7:49 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/23 8:33 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G such that G is logically
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> equivalent to its own unprovability in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> *If we assume that there is such a G in F that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> means that*
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G is true means there is no sequence of inference
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> steps that satisfies G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G is false means there is a sequence of inference
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> steps that satisfies G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> *Thus the above G simply does not exist in F*
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> So?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I finally learned enough model theory to correctly
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> link provability to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> truth in the conventional model theory way.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Doesn't seem so, you don't seem to understand the
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> difference. You seem to confuse Truth with Knowledge.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I finally approximated {G asserts its own
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> unprovability in F}
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> using conventional math symbols in their
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> conventional way.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Except that isn't what G is, you only think that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> because you can't actually understand even the
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> outline of Godel's proof, so you take pieces out of
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> context.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G never asserts its own unprovability.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> The statement that we now have a statement that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> asserts its own unprovablity, as a simplification
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> describing a statment DERIVED from G, and that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> derivation happens in Meta-F, and is about what can
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> be proven in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Since Godel's G isn't of that form, but only can
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> be used to derive a statment IN META-F that says
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> that G is not provable in F, your argument says
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> nothing about Godel's G.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F ⊢ GF ↔ ¬ProvF (┌GF┐).
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/goedel-incompleteness/#FirIncTheCom
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I have finally created a G that is equivalent to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Panu Raatikainen's SEP article.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> So?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Did you read that article?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Also, you don't understand what those terms mean,
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> because G being true doesn't mean there is no
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> sequence of inference steps that satisfies G in F,
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> but there is no FINITE sequence of inference steps
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> that satisfies G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Because we can see that every finite or infinite
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> sequence in F that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> satisfies the RHS of ↔ contradicts the LHS a
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> powerful F can infer that G
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> is utterly unsatisfiable even for infinite
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> sequences in this more
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> powerful F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Nope. Show the PROOF.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> You don't know HOW to do a proof, you can only do
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> arguement.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G in F such that G is logically
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> equivalent to its own unprovability in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> A proof is any sequence of steps that shows that its
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> conclusion is a
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> necessary consequence of its premises.\
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Boy are you wrong.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> A proof is a FINITE sequence of steps that shows that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> a given statement is a necessary consequence of the
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> defined system.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> "Proof" doesn't have a  "Premise", it has a system.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> The statement may have conditions in it restricting when
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G in F such that G is logically
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> equivalent to its own unprovability in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is true then there is no sequence of inference
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> steps that satisfies G in F making G untrue.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> no FINITE sequence, making G UNPROVABLE, and there IS
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> an INFINITE sequence making it TRUE.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> This is possible.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is false then there is a sequence of inference
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> steps that satisfies G in F making G true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is false, then there is a finite sequence proving
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G, which forces G to be true, thus this is a
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> contradiction.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Because the RHS of ↔ contradicts the LHS there is no
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> such G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Thus the above G simply does not exist in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Nope, because we can have an infinite sequence that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> isn't finite, G can be True but not Provable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is false and ↔ is true this makes the RHS false
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> which negates the RHS making it say (G ⊢ F) which makes
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G true in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Right, G can't be false, but it can be True.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Thus ↔ cannot be satisfied thus no such G exists in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Why do you say that?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I don't think you know what you terms mean.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G in F such that G is true if and only if G
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> is Unprovable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>> Logical equality
>>>>>>>>>>>>> p q p ↔ q
>>>>>>>>>>>>> T T   T // G is true if and only if G is Unprovable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>> T F   F //
>>>>>>>>>>>>> F T   F //
>>>>>>>>>>>>> F F   T // G is false if and only if G is Provable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>> https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Truth_table#Logical_equality
>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>> Row(1) There exists a G in F such that G is true if and
>>>>>>>>>>>>> only if G is
>>>>>>>>>>>>> unprovable in F making G unsatisfied thus untrue in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>> Row(4) There exists a G in F such that G is false if and
>>>>>>>>>>>>> only if G is
>>>>>>>>>>>>> provable in F making G satisfied thus true in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>> If either Row(1) or Row(4) are unsatisfied then ↔ is false.
>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>> But if neither row values can ACTUALLY EXIST, then the
>>>>>>>>>>>> equality is true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>> If either Row(1) or Row(4) cannot have the same value for p
>>>>>>>>>>> and q
>>>>>>>>>>> (for whatever reason) then ↔ is unsatisfied and no such G
>>>>>>>>>>> exists in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>> So, you don't understand how truth tables work.
>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>> You don't need to have all the rows with true being possible,
>>>>>>>>>> you need all the rows that are possible to be True.
>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>> To the best of my knowledge
>>>>>>>>> ↔ is also known as logical equivalence meaning that the LHS and
>>>>>>>>> the RHS
>>>>>>>>> must always have the same truth value or ↔ is not true.
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>> Right, and for that statement, the actual G found in F, the ONLY
>>>>>>>> values that happen is G is ALWAYS true, an Unprovable is always
>>>>>>>> true.
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>> Thus the equivalence is always true.
>>>>>>> I don't think that is the way that it works.
>>>>>>> We must assume that the RHS is true and see how that effects the LHS
>>>>>>> We must assume that the RHS is false and see how that effects the
>>>>>>> LHS
>>>>>>> ((True(RHS) → True(LHS)) ∧ (False(RHS) → False(LHS))) ≡ (RHS ↔ LHS)
>>>>>>> False(RHS) → True(LHS) refutes (RHS ↔ LHS)
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>> Nope, that isn't how it works.
>>>>>>
>>>>>> Can you show me something that says that is how it works?
>>>>>
>>>>> p ↔ q would seem to mean ((p → q) ∧ (q → p))
>>>>> Here is a much clearer and conventional way of showing that
>>>>>
>>>>> Logical implication derives logical equivalence
>>>>> p---q---(p ⇒ q)---(q ⇒ p)---(q ↔ p)
>>>>> T---T------T----------T---------T
>>>>> T---F------F----------T---------F
>>>>> F---T------T----------F---------F
>>>>> F---F------T----------T---------T
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>
>>>> So, why does the fact that the last line is never used in this case
>>>> cause a problem.
>>>>
>>>
>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>
>>> I am just saying that according to the conventional rules of logic the
>>> above expression is simply false. There is no G that is logically
>>> equivalent to its own unprovability in F.
>>>
>>
>> But Godel's G satisfies that.
>>
>> Remember, G is the statement that there does not exist a number g such
>> that g statisifes a particular Primative Recursive Relationship (built
>> in Meta-F, but using only operations defined in F).
>>
> There is no such G in F says the same thing, yet does not falsely place
> the blame on F.
>


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Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its own unprovability in F

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From: polco...@gmail.com (olcott)
Newsgroups: sci.logic,sci.math,alt.philosophy,comp.theory,comp.ai.philosophy
Subject: Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its own
unprovability in F
Date: Sat, 22 Apr 2023 15:02:11 -0500
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In-Reply-To: <v1X0M.522231$5S78.189507@fx48.iad>
 by: olcott - Sat, 22 Apr 2023 20:02 UTC

On 4/22/2023 3:00 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
> On 4/22/23 3:54 PM, olcott wrote:
>> On 4/22/2023 2:44 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>> On 4/22/23 3:34 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>> On 4/22/2023 2:15 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>> On 4/22/23 3:11 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 1:01 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 1:13 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 11:56 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 12:45 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 11:36 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 12:27 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 11:12 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 11:39 AM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 9:57 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 10:48 AM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 9:38 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 10:28 AM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 6:17 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/23 11:40 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/2023 9:45 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/23 9:41 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/2023 7:49 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/23 8:33 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G such that G is logically
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> equivalent to its own unprovability in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> *If we assume that there is such a G in F that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> means that*
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G is true means there is no sequence of
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> inference steps that satisfies G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G is false means there is a sequence of
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> inference steps that satisfies G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> *Thus the above G simply does not exist in F*
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> So?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I finally learned enough model theory to correctly
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> link provability to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> truth in the conventional model theory way.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Doesn't seem so, you don't seem to understand the
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> difference. You seem to confuse Truth with Knowledge.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I finally approximated {G asserts its own
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> unprovability in F}
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> using conventional math symbols in their
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> conventional way.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Except that isn't what G is, you only think that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> because you can't actually understand even the
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> outline of Godel's proof, so you take pieces out of
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> context.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G never asserts its own unprovability.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> The statement that we now have a statement that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> asserts its own unprovablity, as a simplification
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> describing a statment DERIVED from G, and that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> derivation happens in Meta-F, and is about what can
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> be proven in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Since Godel's G isn't of that form, but only can
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> be used to derive a statment IN META-F that says
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> that G is not provable in F, your argument says
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> nothing about Godel's G.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F ⊢ GF ↔ ¬ProvF (┌GF┐).
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/goedel-incompleteness/#FirIncTheCom
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I have finally created a G that is equivalent to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Panu Raatikainen's SEP article.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> So?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Did you read that article?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Also, you don't understand what those terms mean,
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> because G being true doesn't mean there is no
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> sequence of inference steps that satisfies G in
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F, but there is no FINITE sequence of inference
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> steps that satisfies G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Because we can see that every finite or infinite
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> sequence in F that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> satisfies the RHS of ↔ contradicts the LHS a
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> powerful F can infer that G
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> is utterly unsatisfiable even for infinite
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> sequences in this more
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> powerful F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Nope. Show the PROOF.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> You don't know HOW to do a proof, you can only do
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> arguement.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G in F such that G is logically
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> equivalent to its own unprovability in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> A proof is any sequence of steps that shows that its
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> conclusion is a
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> necessary consequence of its premises.\
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Boy are you wrong.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> A proof is a FINITE sequence of steps that shows that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> a given statement is a necessary consequence of the
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> defined system.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> "Proof" doesn't have a  "Premise", it has a system.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> The statement may have conditions in it restricting when
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G in F such that G is logically
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> equivalent to its own unprovability in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is true then there is no sequence of inference
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> steps that satisfies G in F making G untrue.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> no FINITE sequence, making G UNPROVABLE, and there IS
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> an INFINITE sequence making it TRUE.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> This is possible.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is false then there is a sequence of inference
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> steps that satisfies G in F making G true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is false, then there is a finite sequence
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> proving G, which forces G to be true, thus this is a
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> contradiction.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Because the RHS of ↔ contradicts the LHS there is no
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> such G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Thus the above G simply does not exist in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Nope, because we can have an infinite sequence that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> isn't finite, G can be True but not Provable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is false and ↔ is true this makes the RHS false
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> which negates the RHS making it say (G ⊢ F) which
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> makes G true in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Right, G can't be false, but it can be True.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Thus ↔ cannot be satisfied thus no such G exists in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Why do you say that?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I don't think you know what you terms mean.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G in F such that G is true if and only if
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G is Unprovable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Logical equality
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> p q p ↔ q
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> T T   T // G is true if and only if G is Unprovable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> T F   F //
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F T   F //
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F F   T // G is false if and only if G is Provable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Truth_table#Logical_equality
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Row(1) There exists a G in F such that G is true if and
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> only if G is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> unprovable in F making G unsatisfied thus untrue in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Row(4) There exists a G in F such that G is false if and
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> only if G is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> provable in F making G satisfied thus true in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If either Row(1) or Row(4) are unsatisfied then ↔ is false.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>> But if neither row values can ACTUALLY EXIST, then the
>>>>>>>>>>>>> equality is true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>> If either Row(1) or Row(4) cannot have the same value for p
>>>>>>>>>>>> and q
>>>>>>>>>>>> (for whatever reason) then ↔ is unsatisfied and no such G
>>>>>>>>>>>> exists in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>> So, you don't understand how truth tables work.
>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>> You don't need to have all the rows with true being possible,
>>>>>>>>>>> you need all the rows that are possible to be True.
>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>> To the best of my knowledge
>>>>>>>>>> ↔ is also known as logical equivalence meaning that the LHS
>>>>>>>>>> and the RHS
>>>>>>>>>> must always have the same truth value or ↔ is not true.
>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>> Right, and for that statement, the actual G found in F, the
>>>>>>>>> ONLY values that happen is G is ALWAYS true, an Unprovable is
>>>>>>>>> always true.
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>> Thus the equivalence is always true.
>>>>>>>> I don't think that is the way that it works.
>>>>>>>> We must assume that the RHS is true and see how that effects the
>>>>>>>> LHS
>>>>>>>> We must assume that the RHS is false and see how that effects
>>>>>>>> the LHS
>>>>>>>> ((True(RHS) → True(LHS)) ∧ (False(RHS) → False(LHS))) ≡ (RHS ↔ LHS)
>>>>>>>> False(RHS) → True(LHS) refutes (RHS ↔ LHS)
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> Nope, that isn't how it works.
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> Can you show me something that says that is how it works?
>>>>>>
>>>>>> p ↔ q would seem to mean ((p → q) ∧ (q → p))
>>>>>> Here is a much clearer and conventional way of showing that
>>>>>>
>>>>>> Logical implication derives logical equivalence
>>>>>> p---q---(p ⇒ q)---(q ⇒ p)---(q ↔ p)
>>>>>> T---T------T----------T---------T
>>>>>> T---F------F----------T---------F
>>>>>> F---T------T----------F---------F
>>>>>> F---F------T----------T---------T
>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> So, why does the fact that the last line is never used in this case
>>>>> cause a problem.
>>>>>
>>>>
>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>
>>>> I am just saying that according to the conventional rules of logic the
>>>> above expression is simply false. There is no G that is logically
>>>> equivalent to its own unprovability in F.
>>>>
>>>
>>> But Godel's G satisfies that.
>>>
>>> Remember, G is the statement that there does not exist a number g
>>> such that g statisifes a particular Primative Recursive Relationship
>>> (built in Meta-F, but using only operations defined in F).
>>>
>> There is no such G in F says the same thing, yet does not falsely place
>> the blame on F.
>>
>
> Yes, but can you PROVE your statement? If not, you are just making
> unsubstantiated false claims, just like DT.
>


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Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its own unprovability in F

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From: Rich...@Damon-Family.org (Richard Damon)
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Date: Sat, 22 Apr 2023 16:06:42 -0400
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 by: Richard Damon - Sat, 22 Apr 2023 20:06 UTC

On 4/22/23 4:02 PM, olcott wrote:
> On 4/22/2023 3:00 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>> On 4/22/23 3:54 PM, olcott wrote:
>>> On 4/22/2023 2:44 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>> On 4/22/23 3:34 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>> On 4/22/2023 2:15 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>> On 4/22/23 3:11 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 1:01 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 1:13 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 11:56 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 12:45 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 11:36 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 12:27 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 11:12 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 11:39 AM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 9:57 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 10:48 AM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 9:38 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 10:28 AM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 6:17 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/23 11:40 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/2023 9:45 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/23 9:41 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/2023 7:49 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/23 8:33 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G such that G is logically
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> equivalent to its own unprovability in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> *If we assume that there is such a G in F that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> means that*
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G is true means there is no sequence of
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> inference steps that satisfies G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G is false means there is a sequence of
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> inference steps that satisfies G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> *Thus the above G simply does not exist in F*
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> So?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I finally learned enough model theory to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> correctly link provability to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> truth in the conventional model theory way.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Doesn't seem so, you don't seem to understand the
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> difference. You seem to confuse Truth with Knowledge.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I finally approximated {G asserts its own
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> unprovability in F}
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> using conventional math symbols in their
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> conventional way.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Except that isn't what G is, you only think that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> because you can't actually understand even the
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> outline of Godel's proof, so you take pieces out
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> of context.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G never asserts its own unprovability.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> The statement that we now have a statement that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> asserts its own unprovablity, as a simplification
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> describing a statment DERIVED from G, and that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> derivation happens in Meta-F, and is about what
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> can be proven in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Since Godel's G isn't of that form, but only can
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> be used to derive a statment IN META-F that says
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> that G is not provable in F, your argument says
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> nothing about Godel's G.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F ⊢ GF ↔ ¬ProvF (┌GF┐).
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/goedel-incompleteness/#FirIncTheCom
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I have finally created a G that is equivalent to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Panu Raatikainen's SEP article.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> So?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Did you read that article?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Also, you don't understand what those terms
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> mean, because G being true doesn't mean there is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> no sequence of inference steps that satisfies G
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> in F, but there is no FINITE sequence of
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> inference steps that satisfies G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Because we can see that every finite or infinite
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> sequence in F that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> satisfies the RHS of ↔ contradicts the LHS a
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> powerful F can infer that G
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> is utterly unsatisfiable even for infinite
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> sequences in this more
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> powerful F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Nope. Show the PROOF.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> You don't know HOW to do a proof, you can only do
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> arguement.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G in F such that G is logically
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> equivalent to its own unprovability in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> A proof is any sequence of steps that shows that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> its conclusion is a
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> necessary consequence of its premises.\
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Boy are you wrong.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> A proof is a FINITE sequence of steps that shows
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> that a given statement is a necessary consequence of
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> the defined system.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> "Proof" doesn't have a  "Premise", it has a system.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> The statement may have conditions in it restricting
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> when
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G in F such that G is logically
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> equivalent to its own unprovability in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is true then there is no sequence of inference
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> steps that satisfies G in F making G untrue.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> no FINITE sequence, making G UNPROVABLE, and there
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> IS an INFINITE sequence making it TRUE.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> This is possible.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is false then there is a sequence of inference
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> steps that satisfies G in F making G true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is false, then there is a finite sequence
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> proving G, which forces G to be true, thus this is a
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> contradiction.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Because the RHS of ↔ contradicts the LHS there is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> no such G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Thus the above G simply does not exist in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Nope, because we can have an infinite sequence that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> isn't finite, G can be True but not Provable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is false and ↔ is true this makes the RHS false
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> which negates the RHS making it say (G ⊢ F) which
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> makes G true in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Right, G can't be false, but it can be True.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Thus ↔ cannot be satisfied thus no such G exists in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Why do you say that?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I don't think you know what you terms mean.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G in F such that G is true if and only if
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G is Unprovable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Logical equality
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> p q p ↔ q
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> T T   T // G is true if and only if G is Unprovable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> T F   F //
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F T   F //
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F F   T // G is false if and only if G is Provable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Truth_table#Logical_equality
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Row(1) There exists a G in F such that G is true if and
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> only if G is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> unprovable in F making G unsatisfied thus untrue in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Row(4) There exists a G in F such that G is false if and
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> only if G is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> provable in F making G satisfied thus true in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If either Row(1) or Row(4) are unsatisfied then ↔ is false.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> But if neither row values can ACTUALLY EXIST, then the
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> equality is true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>> If either Row(1) or Row(4) cannot have the same value for p
>>>>>>>>>>>>> and q
>>>>>>>>>>>>> (for whatever reason) then ↔ is unsatisfied and no such G
>>>>>>>>>>>>> exists in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>> So, you don't understand how truth tables work.
>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>> You don't need to have all the rows with true being
>>>>>>>>>>>> possible, you need all the rows that are possible to be True.
>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>> To the best of my knowledge
>>>>>>>>>>> ↔ is also known as logical equivalence meaning that the LHS
>>>>>>>>>>> and the RHS
>>>>>>>>>>> must always have the same truth value or ↔ is not true.
>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>> Right, and for that statement, the actual G found in F, the
>>>>>>>>>> ONLY values that happen is G is ALWAYS true, an Unprovable is
>>>>>>>>>> always true.
>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>> Thus the equivalence is always true.
>>>>>>>>> I don't think that is the way that it works.
>>>>>>>>> We must assume that the RHS is true and see how that effects
>>>>>>>>> the LHS
>>>>>>>>> We must assume that the RHS is false and see how that effects
>>>>>>>>> the LHS
>>>>>>>>> ((True(RHS) → True(LHS)) ∧ (False(RHS) → False(LHS))) ≡ (RHS ↔
>>>>>>>>> LHS)
>>>>>>>>> False(RHS) → True(LHS) refutes (RHS ↔ LHS)
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>> Nope, that isn't how it works.
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>> Can you show me something that says that is how it works?
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> p ↔ q would seem to mean ((p → q) ∧ (q → p))
>>>>>>> Here is a much clearer and conventional way of showing that
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> Logical implication derives logical equivalence
>>>>>>> p---q---(p ⇒ q)---(q ⇒ p)---(q ↔ p)
>>>>>>> T---T------T----------T---------T
>>>>>>> T---F------F----------T---------F
>>>>>>> F---T------T----------F---------F
>>>>>>> F---F------T----------T---------T
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>> So, why does the fact that the last line is never used in this
>>>>>> case cause a problem.
>>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>
>>>>> I am just saying that according to the conventional rules of logic the
>>>>> above expression is simply false. There is no G that is logically
>>>>> equivalent to its own unprovability in F.
>>>>>
>>>>
>>>> But Godel's G satisfies that.
>>>>
>>>> Remember, G is the statement that there does not exist a number g
>>>> such that g statisifes a particular Primative Recursive Relationship
>>>> (built in Meta-F, but using only operations defined in F).
>>>>
>>> There is no such G in F says the same thing, yet does not falsely place
>>> the blame on F.
>>>
>>
>> Yes, but can you PROVE your statement? If not, you are just making
>> unsubstantiated false claims, just like DT.
>>
>
> I just proved it. The only gap in the proof was your lack of
> understanding (an honest mistake not a lie) about how ↔ works.
>
>


Click here to read the complete article
Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its own unprovability in F

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From: polco...@gmail.com (olcott)
Newsgroups: sci.logic,sci.math,alt.philosophy,comp.theory,comp.ai.philosophy
Subject: Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its own
unprovability in F
Date: Sat, 22 Apr 2023 15:10:56 -0500
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Content-Language: en-US
 by: olcott - Sat, 22 Apr 2023 20:10 UTC

On 4/22/2023 3:06 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
> On 4/22/23 4:02 PM, olcott wrote:
>> On 4/22/2023 3:00 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>> On 4/22/23 3:54 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>> On 4/22/2023 2:44 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>> On 4/22/23 3:34 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 2:15 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 3:11 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 1:01 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 1:13 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 11:56 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 12:45 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 11:36 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 12:27 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 11:12 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 11:39 AM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 9:57 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 10:48 AM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 9:38 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 10:28 AM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 6:17 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/23 11:40 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/2023 9:45 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/23 9:41 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/2023 7:49 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/23 8:33 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G such that G is logically
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> equivalent to its own unprovability in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> *If we assume that there is such a G in F that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> means that*
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G is true means there is no sequence of
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> inference steps that satisfies G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G is false means there is a sequence of
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> inference steps that satisfies G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> *Thus the above G simply does not exist in F*
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> So?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I finally learned enough model theory to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> correctly link provability to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> truth in the conventional model theory way.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Doesn't seem so, you don't seem to understand the
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> difference. You seem to confuse Truth with
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Knowledge.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I finally approximated {G asserts its own
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> unprovability in F}
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> using conventional math symbols in their
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> conventional way.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Except that isn't what G is, you only think that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> because you can't actually understand even the
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> outline of Godel's proof, so you take pieces out
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> of context.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G never asserts its own unprovability.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> The statement that we now have a statement that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> asserts its own unprovablity, as a simplification
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> describing a statment DERIVED from G, and that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> derivation happens in Meta-F, and is about what
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> can be proven in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Since Godel's G isn't of that form, but only
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> can be used to derive a statment IN META-F that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> says that G is not provable in F, your argument
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> says nothing about Godel's G.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F ⊢ GF ↔ ¬ProvF (┌GF┐).
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/goedel-incompleteness/#FirIncTheCom
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I have finally created a G that is equivalent to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Panu Raatikainen's SEP article.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> So?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Did you read that article?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Also, you don't understand what those terms
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> mean, because G being true doesn't mean there
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> is no sequence of inference steps that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> satisfies G in F, but there is no FINITE
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> sequence of inference steps that satisfies G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Because we can see that every finite or infinite
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> sequence in F that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> satisfies the RHS of ↔ contradicts the LHS a
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> powerful F can infer that G
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> is utterly unsatisfiable even for infinite
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> sequences in this more
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> powerful F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Nope. Show the PROOF.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> You don't know HOW to do a proof, you can only do
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> arguement.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G in F such that G is logically
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> equivalent to its own unprovability in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> A proof is any sequence of steps that shows that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> its conclusion is a
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> necessary consequence of its premises.\
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Boy are you wrong.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> A proof is a FINITE sequence of steps that shows
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> that a given statement is a necessary consequence
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> of the defined system.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> "Proof" doesn't have a  "Premise", it has a system.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> The statement may have conditions in it restricting
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> when
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G in F such that G is logically
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> equivalent to its own unprovability in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is true then there is no sequence of
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> inference steps that satisfies G in F making G
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> untrue.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> no FINITE sequence, making G UNPROVABLE, and there
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> IS an INFINITE sequence making it TRUE.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> This is possible.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is false then there is a sequence of
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> inference steps that satisfies G in F making G true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is false, then there is a finite sequence
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> proving G, which forces G to be true, thus this is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> a contradiction.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Because the RHS of ↔ contradicts the LHS there is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> no such G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Thus the above G simply does not exist in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Nope, because we can have an infinite sequence that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> isn't finite, G can be True but not Provable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is false and ↔ is true this makes the RHS false
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> which negates the RHS making it say (G ⊢ F) which
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> makes G true in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Right, G can't be false, but it can be True.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Thus ↔ cannot be satisfied thus no such G exists in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Why do you say that?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I don't think you know what you terms mean.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G in F such that G is true if and only
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> if G is Unprovable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Logical equality
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> p q p ↔ q
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> T T   T // G is true if and only if G is Unprovable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> T F   F //
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F T   F //
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F F   T // G is false if and only if G is Provable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Truth_table#Logical_equality
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Row(1) There exists a G in F such that G is true if and
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> only if G is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> unprovable in F making G unsatisfied thus untrue in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Row(4) There exists a G in F such that G is false if and
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> only if G is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> provable in F making G satisfied thus true in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If either Row(1) or Row(4) are unsatisfied then ↔ is false.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> But if neither row values can ACTUALLY EXIST, then the
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> equality is true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If either Row(1) or Row(4) cannot have the same value for
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> p and q
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> (for whatever reason) then ↔ is unsatisfied and no such G
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> exists in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>> So, you don't understand how truth tables work.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>> You don't need to have all the rows with true being
>>>>>>>>>>>>> possible, you need all the rows that are possible to be True.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>> To the best of my knowledge
>>>>>>>>>>>> ↔ is also known as logical equivalence meaning that the LHS
>>>>>>>>>>>> and the RHS
>>>>>>>>>>>> must always have the same truth value or ↔ is not true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>> Right, and for that statement, the actual G found in F, the
>>>>>>>>>>> ONLY values that happen is G is ALWAYS true, an Unprovable is
>>>>>>>>>>> always true.
>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>> Thus the equivalence is always true.
>>>>>>>>>> I don't think that is the way that it works.
>>>>>>>>>> We must assume that the RHS is true and see how that effects
>>>>>>>>>> the LHS
>>>>>>>>>> We must assume that the RHS is false and see how that effects
>>>>>>>>>> the LHS
>>>>>>>>>> ((True(RHS) → True(LHS)) ∧ (False(RHS) → False(LHS))) ≡ (RHS ↔
>>>>>>>>>> LHS)
>>>>>>>>>> False(RHS) → True(LHS) refutes (RHS ↔ LHS)
>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>> Nope, that isn't how it works.
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>> Can you show me something that says that is how it works?
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>> p ↔ q would seem to mean ((p → q) ∧ (q → p))
>>>>>>>> Here is a much clearer and conventional way of showing that
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>> Logical implication derives logical equivalence
>>>>>>>> p---q---(p ⇒ q)---(q ⇒ p)---(q ↔ p)
>>>>>>>> T---T------T----------T---------T
>>>>>>>> T---F------F----------T---------F
>>>>>>>> F---T------T----------F---------F
>>>>>>>> F---F------T----------T---------T
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> So, why does the fact that the last line is never used in this
>>>>>>> case cause a problem.
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>
>>>>>> I am just saying that according to the conventional rules of logic
>>>>>> the
>>>>>> above expression is simply false. There is no G that is logically
>>>>>> equivalent to its own unprovability in F.
>>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> But Godel's G satisfies that.
>>>>>
>>>>> Remember, G is the statement that there does not exist a number g
>>>>> such that g statisifes a particular Primative Recursive
>>>>> Relationship (built in Meta-F, but using only operations defined in
>>>>> F).
>>>>>
>>>> There is no such G in F says the same thing, yet does not falsely place
>>>> the blame on F.
>>>>
>>>
>>> Yes, but can you PROVE your statement? If not, you are just making
>>> unsubstantiated false claims, just like DT.
>>>
>>
>> I just proved it. The only gap in the proof was your lack of
>> understanding (an honest mistake not a lie) about how ↔ works.
>>
>>
>
> Nope, how did you prove that no such G exists? You claims that row 4
> can't be satisfied? it doesn't need to ever be used.


Click here to read the complete article
Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its own unprovability in F

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From: Rich...@Damon-Family.org (Richard Damon)
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 by: Richard Damon - Sat, 22 Apr 2023 20:14 UTC

On 4/22/23 4:10 PM, olcott wrote:
> On 4/22/2023 3:06 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>> On 4/22/23 4:02 PM, olcott wrote:
>>> On 4/22/2023 3:00 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>> On 4/22/23 3:54 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>> On 4/22/2023 2:44 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>> On 4/22/23 3:34 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 2:15 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 3:11 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 1:01 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 1:13 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 11:56 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 12:45 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 11:36 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 12:27 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 11:12 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 11:39 AM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 9:57 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 10:48 AM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 9:38 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 10:28 AM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 6:17 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/23 11:40 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/2023 9:45 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/23 9:41 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/2023 7:49 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/23 8:33 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G such that G is logically
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> equivalent to its own unprovability in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> *If we assume that there is such a G in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> that means that*
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G is true means there is no sequence of
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> inference steps that satisfies G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G is false means there is a sequence of
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> inference steps that satisfies G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> *Thus the above G simply does not exist in F*
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> So?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I finally learned enough model theory to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> correctly link provability to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> truth in the conventional model theory way.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Doesn't seem so, you don't seem to understand
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> the difference. You seem to confuse Truth with
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Knowledge.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I finally approximated {G asserts its own
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> unprovability in F}
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> using conventional math symbols in their
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> conventional way.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Except that isn't what G is, you only think that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> because you can't actually understand even the
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> outline of Godel's proof, so you take pieces out
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> of context.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G never asserts its own unprovability.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> The statement that we now have a statement that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> asserts its own unprovablity, as a
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> simplification describing a statment DERIVED
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> from G, and that derivation happens in Meta-F,
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> and is about what can be proven in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Since Godel's G isn't of that form, but only
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> can be used to derive a statment IN META-F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> that says that G is not provable in F, your
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> argument says nothing about Godel's G.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F ⊢ GF ↔ ¬ProvF (┌GF┐).
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/goedel-incompleteness/#FirIncTheCom
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I have finally created a G that is equivalent to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Panu Raatikainen's SEP article.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> So?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Did you read that article?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Also, you don't understand what those terms
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> mean, because G being true doesn't mean there
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> is no sequence of inference steps that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> satisfies G in F, but there is no FINITE
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> sequence of inference steps that satisfies G
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Because we can see that every finite or
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> infinite sequence in F that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> satisfies the RHS of ↔ contradicts the LHS a
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> powerful F can infer that G
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> is utterly unsatisfiable even for infinite
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> sequences in this more
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> powerful F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Nope. Show the PROOF.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> You don't know HOW to do a proof, you can only
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> do arguement.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G in F such that G is logically
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> equivalent to its own unprovability in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> A proof is any sequence of steps that shows that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> its conclusion is a
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> necessary consequence of its premises.\
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Boy are you wrong.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> A proof is a FINITE sequence of steps that shows
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> that a given statement is a necessary consequence
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> of the defined system.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> "Proof" doesn't have a  "Premise", it has a system.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> The statement may have conditions in it
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> restricting when
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G in F such that G is logically
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> equivalent to its own unprovability in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is true then there is no sequence of
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> inference steps that satisfies G in F making G
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> untrue.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> no FINITE sequence, making G UNPROVABLE, and there
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> IS an INFINITE sequence making it TRUE.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> This is possible.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is false then there is a sequence of
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> inference steps that satisfies G in F making G true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is false, then there is a finite sequence
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> proving G, which forces G to be true, thus this is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> a contradiction.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Because the RHS of ↔ contradicts the LHS there is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> no such G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Thus the above G simply does not exist in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Nope, because we can have an infinite sequence
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> that isn't finite, G can be True but not Provable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is false and ↔ is true this makes the RHS
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> false which negates the RHS making it say (G ⊢ F)
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> which makes G true in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Right, G can't be false, but it can be True.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Thus ↔ cannot be satisfied thus no such G exists in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Why do you say that?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I don't think you know what you terms mean.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G in F such that G is true if and only
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> if G is Unprovable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Logical equality
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> p q p ↔ q
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> T T   T // G is true if and only if G is Unprovable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> T F   F //
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F T   F //
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F F   T // G is false if and only if G is Provable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Truth_table#Logical_equality
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Row(1) There exists a G in F such that G is true if and
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> only if G is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> unprovable in F making G unsatisfied thus untrue in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Row(4) There exists a G in F such that G is false if
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> and only if G is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> provable in F making G satisfied thus true in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If either Row(1) or Row(4) are unsatisfied then ↔ is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> false.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> But if neither row values can ACTUALLY EXIST, then the
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> equality is true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If either Row(1) or Row(4) cannot have the same value for
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> p and q
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> (for whatever reason) then ↔ is unsatisfied and no such G
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> exists in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> So, you don't understand how truth tables work.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> You don't need to have all the rows with true being
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> possible, you need all the rows that are possible to be True.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>> To the best of my knowledge
>>>>>>>>>>>>> ↔ is also known as logical equivalence meaning that the LHS
>>>>>>>>>>>>> and the RHS
>>>>>>>>>>>>> must always have the same truth value or ↔ is not true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>> Right, and for that statement, the actual G found in F, the
>>>>>>>>>>>> ONLY values that happen is G is ALWAYS true, an Unprovable
>>>>>>>>>>>> is always true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>> Thus the equivalence is always true.
>>>>>>>>>>> I don't think that is the way that it works.
>>>>>>>>>>> We must assume that the RHS is true and see how that effects
>>>>>>>>>>> the LHS
>>>>>>>>>>> We must assume that the RHS is false and see how that effects
>>>>>>>>>>> the LHS
>>>>>>>>>>> ((True(RHS) → True(LHS)) ∧ (False(RHS) → False(LHS))) ≡ (RHS
>>>>>>>>>>> ↔ LHS)
>>>>>>>>>>> False(RHS) → True(LHS) refutes (RHS ↔ LHS)
>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>> Nope, that isn't how it works.
>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>> Can you show me something that says that is how it works?
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>> p ↔ q would seem to mean ((p → q) ∧ (q → p))
>>>>>>>>> Here is a much clearer and conventional way of showing that
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>> Logical implication derives logical equivalence
>>>>>>>>> p---q---(p ⇒ q)---(q ⇒ p)---(q ↔ p)
>>>>>>>>> T---T------T----------T---------T
>>>>>>>>> T---F------F----------T---------F
>>>>>>>>> F---T------T----------F---------F
>>>>>>>>> F---F------T----------T---------T
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>> So, why does the fact that the last line is never used in this
>>>>>>>> case cause a problem.
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> I am just saying that according to the conventional rules of
>>>>>>> logic the
>>>>>>> above expression is simply false. There is no G that is logically
>>>>>>> equivalent to its own unprovability in F.
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>> But Godel's G satisfies that.
>>>>>>
>>>>>> Remember, G is the statement that there does not exist a number g
>>>>>> such that g statisifes a particular Primative Recursive
>>>>>> Relationship (built in Meta-F, but using only operations defined
>>>>>> in F).
>>>>>>
>>>>> There is no such G in F says the same thing, yet does not falsely
>>>>> place
>>>>> the blame on F.
>>>>>
>>>>
>>>> Yes, but can you PROVE your statement? If not, you are just making
>>>> unsubstantiated false claims, just like DT.
>>>>
>>>
>>> I just proved it. The only gap in the proof was your lack of
>>> understanding (an honest mistake not a lie) about how ↔ works.
>>>
>>>
>>
>> Nope, how did you prove that no such G exists? You claims that row 4
>> can't be satisfied? it doesn't need to ever be used.
>
> Try and prove that with a source, in the mean time I will tentatively
> assume that you are wrong. I proved that I am correct with the above
> truth table yet this assumes: p ↔ q means ((p → q) ∧ (q → p))
>


Click here to read the complete article
Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its own unprovability in F

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From: polco...@gmail.com (olcott)
Newsgroups: sci.logic,sci.math,alt.philosophy,comp.theory,comp.ai.philosophy
Subject: Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its own
unprovability in F
Date: Sat, 22 Apr 2023 15:39:24 -0500
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In-Reply-To: <5fX0M.508418$Ldj8.354905@fx47.iad>
 by: olcott - Sat, 22 Apr 2023 20:39 UTC

On 4/22/2023 3:14 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
> On 4/22/23 4:10 PM, olcott wrote:
>> On 4/22/2023 3:06 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>> On 4/22/23 4:02 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>> On 4/22/2023 3:00 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>> On 4/22/23 3:54 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 2:44 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 3:34 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 2:15 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 3:11 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 1:01 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 1:13 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 11:56 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 12:45 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 11:36 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 12:27 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 11:12 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 11:39 AM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 9:57 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 10:48 AM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 9:38 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 10:28 AM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 6:17 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/23 11:40 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/2023 9:45 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/23 9:41 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/2023 7:49 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/23 8:33 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G such that G is logically
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> equivalent to its own unprovability in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> *If we assume that there is such a G in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> that means that*
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G is true means there is no sequence of
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> inference steps that satisfies G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G is false means there is a sequence of
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> inference steps that satisfies G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> *Thus the above G simply does not exist in F*
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> So?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I finally learned enough model theory to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> correctly link provability to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> truth in the conventional model theory way.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Doesn't seem so, you don't seem to understand
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> the difference. You seem to confuse Truth with
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Knowledge.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I finally approximated {G asserts its own
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> unprovability in F}
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> using conventional math symbols in their
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> conventional way.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Except that isn't what G is, you only think
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> that because you can't actually understand even
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> the outline of Godel's proof, so you take
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> pieces out of context.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G never asserts its own unprovability.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> The statement that we now have a statement that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> asserts its own unprovablity, as a
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> simplification describing a statment DERIVED
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> from G, and that derivation happens in Meta-F,
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> and is about what can be proven in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Since Godel's G isn't of that form, but only
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> can be used to derive a statment IN META-F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> that says that G is not provable in F, your
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> argument says nothing about Godel's G.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F ⊢ GF ↔ ¬ProvF (┌GF┐).
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/goedel-incompleteness/#FirIncTheCom
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I have finally created a G that is equivalent to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Panu Raatikainen's SEP article.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> So?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Did you read that article?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Also, you don't understand what those terms
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> mean, because G being true doesn't mean there
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> is no sequence of inference steps that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> satisfies G in F, but there is no FINITE
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> sequence of inference steps that satisfies G
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Because we can see that every finite or
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> infinite sequence in F that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> satisfies the RHS of ↔ contradicts the LHS a
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> powerful F can infer that G
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> is utterly unsatisfiable even for infinite
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> sequences in this more
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> powerful F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Nope. Show the PROOF.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> You don't know HOW to do a proof, you can only
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> do arguement.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G in F such that G is logically
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> equivalent to its own unprovability in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> A proof is any sequence of steps that shows that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> its conclusion is a
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> necessary consequence of its premises.\
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Boy are you wrong.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> A proof is a FINITE sequence of steps that shows
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> that a given statement is a necessary consequence
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> of the defined system.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> "Proof" doesn't have a  "Premise", it has a system.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> The statement may have conditions in it
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> restricting when
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G in F such that G is logically
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> equivalent to its own unprovability in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is true then there is no sequence of
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> inference steps that satisfies G in F making G
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> untrue.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> no FINITE sequence, making G UNPROVABLE, and
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> there IS an INFINITE sequence making it TRUE.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> This is possible.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is false then there is a sequence of
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> inference steps that satisfies G in F making G
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is false, then there is a finite sequence
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> proving G, which forces G to be true, thus this
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> is a contradiction.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Because the RHS of ↔ contradicts the LHS there
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> is no such G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Thus the above G simply does not exist in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Nope, because we can have an infinite sequence
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> that isn't finite, G can be True but not Provable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is false and ↔ is true this makes the RHS
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> false which negates the RHS making it say (G ⊢ F)
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> which makes G true in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Right, G can't be false, but it can be True.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Thus ↔ cannot be satisfied thus no such G exists in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Why do you say that?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I don't think you know what you terms mean.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G in F such that G is true if and only
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> if G is Unprovable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Logical equality
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> p q p ↔ q
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> T T   T // G is true if and only if G is Unprovable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> T F   F //
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F T   F //
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F F   T // G is false if and only if G is Provable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Truth_table#Logical_equality
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Row(1) There exists a G in F such that G is true if
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> and only if G is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> unprovable in F making G unsatisfied thus untrue in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Row(4) There exists a G in F such that G is false if
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> and only if G is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> provable in F making G satisfied thus true in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If either Row(1) or Row(4) are unsatisfied then ↔ is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> false.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> But if neither row values can ACTUALLY EXIST, then the
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> equality is true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If either Row(1) or Row(4) cannot have the same value
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> for p and q
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> (for whatever reason) then ↔ is unsatisfied and no such
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G exists in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> So, you don't understand how truth tables work.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> You don't need to have all the rows with true being
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> possible, you need all the rows that are possible to be
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> True.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> To the best of my knowledge
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ↔ is also known as logical equivalence meaning that the
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> LHS and the RHS
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> must always have the same truth value or ↔ is not true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>> Right, and for that statement, the actual G found in F, the
>>>>>>>>>>>>> ONLY values that happen is G is ALWAYS true, an Unprovable
>>>>>>>>>>>>> is always true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>> Thus the equivalence is always true.
>>>>>>>>>>>> I don't think that is the way that it works.
>>>>>>>>>>>> We must assume that the RHS is true and see how that effects
>>>>>>>>>>>> the LHS
>>>>>>>>>>>> We must assume that the RHS is false and see how that
>>>>>>>>>>>> effects the LHS
>>>>>>>>>>>> ((True(RHS) → True(LHS)) ∧ (False(RHS) → False(LHS))) ≡ (RHS
>>>>>>>>>>>> ↔ LHS)
>>>>>>>>>>>> False(RHS) → True(LHS) refutes (RHS ↔ LHS)
>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>> Nope, that isn't how it works.
>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>> Can you show me something that says that is how it works?
>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>> p ↔ q would seem to mean ((p → q) ∧ (q → p))
>>>>>>>>>> Here is a much clearer and conventional way of showing that
>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>> Logical implication derives logical equivalence
>>>>>>>>>> p---q---(p ⇒ q)---(q ⇒ p)---(q ↔ p)
>>>>>>>>>> T---T------T----------T---------T
>>>>>>>>>> T---F------F----------T---------F
>>>>>>>>>> F---T------T----------F---------F
>>>>>>>>>> F---F------T----------T---------T
>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>> So, why does the fact that the last line is never used in this
>>>>>>>>> case cause a problem.
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>> I am just saying that according to the conventional rules of
>>>>>>>> logic the
>>>>>>>> above expression is simply false. There is no G that is logically
>>>>>>>> equivalent to its own unprovability in F.
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> But Godel's G satisfies that.
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> Remember, G is the statement that there does not exist a number g
>>>>>>> such that g statisifes a particular Primative Recursive
>>>>>>> Relationship (built in Meta-F, but using only operations defined
>>>>>>> in F).
>>>>>>>
>>>>>> There is no such G in F says the same thing, yet does not falsely
>>>>>> place
>>>>>> the blame on F.
>>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> Yes, but can you PROVE your statement? If not, you are just making
>>>>> unsubstantiated false claims, just like DT.
>>>>>
>>>>
>>>> I just proved it. The only gap in the proof was your lack of
>>>> understanding (an honest mistake not a lie) about how ↔ works.
>>>>
>>>>
>>>
>>> Nope, how did you prove that no such G exists? You claims that row 4
>>> can't be satisfied? it doesn't need to ever be used.
>>
>> Try and prove that with a source, in the mean time I will tentatively
>> assume that you are wrong. I proved that I am correct with the above
>> truth table yet this assumes: p ↔ q means ((p → q) ∧ (q → p))
>>
>
>
> WRONG, YOU are making the claim, so YOU need to prove it.
>
I may have been mistaken when I thought that more than one row of the
truth table needed to be satisfied. Furthermore in retrospect this looks
like a dumb mistake that I did not notice as a dumb mistake until I
looked at the truth table for ∧. So we are back to row one.


Click here to read the complete article
Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its own unprovability in F

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Subject: Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its own
unprovability in F
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From: Rich...@Damon-Family.org (Richard Damon)
In-Reply-To: <u21glu$3e09h$1@dont-email.me>
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Date: Sat, 22 Apr 2023 16:43:35 -0400
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 by: Richard Damon - Sat, 22 Apr 2023 20:43 UTC

On 4/22/23 4:39 PM, olcott wrote:
> On 4/22/2023 3:14 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>> On 4/22/23 4:10 PM, olcott wrote:
>>> On 4/22/2023 3:06 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>> On 4/22/23 4:02 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>> On 4/22/2023 3:00 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>> On 4/22/23 3:54 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 2:44 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 3:34 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 2:15 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 3:11 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 1:01 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 1:13 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 11:56 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 12:45 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 11:36 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 12:27 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 11:12 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 11:39 AM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 9:57 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 10:48 AM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 9:38 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 10:28 AM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 6:17 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/23 11:40 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/2023 9:45 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/23 9:41 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/2023 7:49 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/23 8:33 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G such that G is logically
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> equivalent to its own unprovability in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> *If we assume that there is such a G in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> that means that*
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G is true means there is no sequence of
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> inference steps that satisfies G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G is false means there is a sequence of
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> inference steps that satisfies G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> *Thus the above G simply does not exist in F*
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> So?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I finally learned enough model theory to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> correctly link provability to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> truth in the conventional model theory way.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Doesn't seem so, you don't seem to understand
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> the difference. You seem to confuse Truth with
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Knowledge.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I finally approximated {G asserts its own
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> unprovability in F}
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> using conventional math symbols in their
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> conventional way.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Except that isn't what G is, you only think
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> that because you can't actually understand
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> even the outline of Godel's proof, so you take
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> pieces out of context.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G never asserts its own unprovability.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> The statement that we now have a statement
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> that asserts its own unprovablity, as a
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> simplification describing a statment DERIVED
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> from G, and that derivation happens in Meta-F,
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> and is about what can be proven in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Since Godel's G isn't of that form, but only
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> can be used to derive a statment IN META-F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> that says that G is not provable in F, your
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> argument says nothing about Godel's G.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F ⊢ GF ↔ ¬ProvF (┌GF┐).
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/goedel-incompleteness/#FirIncTheCom
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I have finally created a G that is equivalent to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Panu Raatikainen's SEP article.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> So?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Did you read that article?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Also, you don't understand what those terms
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> mean, because G being true doesn't mean
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> there is no sequence of inference steps that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> satisfies G in F, but there is no FINITE
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> sequence of inference steps that satisfies G
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Because we can see that every finite or
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> infinite sequence in F that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> satisfies the RHS of ↔ contradicts the LHS a
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> powerful F can infer that G
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> is utterly unsatisfiable even for infinite
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> sequences in this more
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> powerful F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Nope. Show the PROOF.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> You don't know HOW to do a proof, you can only
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> do arguement.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G in F such that G is logically
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> equivalent to its own unprovability in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> A proof is any sequence of steps that shows
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> that its conclusion is a
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> necessary consequence of its premises.\
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Boy are you wrong.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> A proof is a FINITE sequence of steps that shows
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> that a given statement is a necessary
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> consequence of the defined system.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> "Proof" doesn't have a  "Premise", it has a system.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> The statement may have conditions in it
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> restricting when
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G in F such that G is logically
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> equivalent to its own unprovability in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is true then there is no sequence of
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> inference steps that satisfies G in F making G
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> untrue.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> no FINITE sequence, making G UNPROVABLE, and
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> there IS an INFINITE sequence making it TRUE.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> This is possible.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is false then there is a sequence of
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> inference steps that satisfies G in F making G
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is false, then there is a finite sequence
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> proving G, which forces G to be true, thus this
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> is a contradiction.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Because the RHS of ↔ contradicts the LHS there
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> is no such G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Thus the above G simply does not exist in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Nope, because we can have an infinite sequence
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> that isn't finite, G can be True but not Provable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is false and ↔ is true this makes the RHS
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> false which negates the RHS making it say (G ⊢ F)
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> which makes G true in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Right, G can't be false, but it can be True.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Thus ↔ cannot be satisfied thus no such G exists in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Why do you say that?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I don't think you know what you terms mean.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G in F such that G is true if and
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> only if G is Unprovable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Logical equality
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> p q p ↔ q
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> T T   T // G is true if and only if G is Unprovable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> T F   F //
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F T   F //
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F F   T // G is false if and only if G is Provable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Truth_table#Logical_equality
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Row(1) There exists a G in F such that G is true if
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> and only if G is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> unprovable in F making G unsatisfied thus untrue in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Row(4) There exists a G in F such that G is false if
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> and only if G is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> provable in F making G satisfied thus true in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If either Row(1) or Row(4) are unsatisfied then ↔ is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> false.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> But if neither row values can ACTUALLY EXIST, then the
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> equality is true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If either Row(1) or Row(4) cannot have the same value
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> for p and q
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> (for whatever reason) then ↔ is unsatisfied and no such
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G exists in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> So, you don't understand how truth tables work.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> You don't need to have all the rows with true being
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> possible, you need all the rows that are possible to be
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> True.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> To the best of my knowledge
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ↔ is also known as logical equivalence meaning that the
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> LHS and the RHS
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> must always have the same truth value or ↔ is not true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Right, and for that statement, the actual G found in F,
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> the ONLY values that happen is G is ALWAYS true, an
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Unprovable is always true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Thus the equivalence is always true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>> I don't think that is the way that it works.
>>>>>>>>>>>>> We must assume that the RHS is true and see how that
>>>>>>>>>>>>> effects the LHS
>>>>>>>>>>>>> We must assume that the RHS is false and see how that
>>>>>>>>>>>>> effects the LHS
>>>>>>>>>>>>> ((True(RHS) → True(LHS)) ∧ (False(RHS) → False(LHS))) ≡
>>>>>>>>>>>>> (RHS ↔ LHS)
>>>>>>>>>>>>> False(RHS) → True(LHS) refutes (RHS ↔ LHS)
>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>> Nope, that isn't how it works.
>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>> Can you show me something that says that is how it works?
>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>> p ↔ q would seem to mean ((p → q) ∧ (q → p))
>>>>>>>>>>> Here is a much clearer and conventional way of showing that
>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>> Logical implication derives logical equivalence
>>>>>>>>>>> p---q---(p ⇒ q)---(q ⇒ p)---(q ↔ p)
>>>>>>>>>>> T---T------T----------T---------T
>>>>>>>>>>> T---F------F----------T---------F
>>>>>>>>>>> F---T------T----------F---------F
>>>>>>>>>>> F---F------T----------T---------T
>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>> So, why does the fact that the last line is never used in this
>>>>>>>>>> case cause a problem.
>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>> I am just saying that according to the conventional rules of
>>>>>>>>> logic the
>>>>>>>>> above expression is simply false. There is no G that is logically
>>>>>>>>> equivalent to its own unprovability in F.
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>> But Godel's G satisfies that.
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>> Remember, G is the statement that there does not exist a number
>>>>>>>> g such that g statisifes a particular Primative Recursive
>>>>>>>> Relationship (built in Meta-F, but using only operations defined
>>>>>>>> in F).
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> There is no such G in F says the same thing, yet does not falsely
>>>>>>> place
>>>>>>> the blame on F.
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>> Yes, but can you PROVE your statement? If not, you are just making
>>>>>> unsubstantiated false claims, just like DT.
>>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> I just proved it. The only gap in the proof was your lack of
>>>>> understanding (an honest mistake not a lie) about how ↔ works.
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>
>>>> Nope, how did you prove that no such G exists? You claims that row 4
>>>> can't be satisfied? it doesn't need to ever be used.
>>>
>>> Try and prove that with a source, in the mean time I will tentatively
>>> assume that you are wrong. I proved that I am correct with the above
>>> truth table yet this assumes: p ↔ q means ((p → q) ∧ (q → p))
>>>
>>
>>
>> WRONG, YOU are making the claim, so YOU need to prove it.
>>
> I may have been mistaken when I thought that more than one row of the
> truth table needed to be satisfied. Furthermore in retrospect this looks
> like a dumb mistake that I did not notice as a dumb mistake until I
> looked at the truth table for ∧. So we are back to row one.
>
> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (F ⊬ G))
> If the RHS is satisfied then this means that there are no inference
> steps in F that derive G, thus G cannot be shown to be true in F.
>
>


Click here to read the complete article
Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its own unprovability in F

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From: polco...@gmail.com (olcott)
Newsgroups: sci.logic,sci.math,alt.philosophy,comp.theory,comp.ai.philosophy
Subject: Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its own
unprovability in F
Date: Sat, 22 Apr 2023 15:47:02 -0500
Organization: A noiseless patient Spider
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 by: olcott - Sat, 22 Apr 2023 20:47 UTC

On 4/22/2023 3:43 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
> On 4/22/23 4:39 PM, olcott wrote:
>> On 4/22/2023 3:14 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>> On 4/22/23 4:10 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>> On 4/22/2023 3:06 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>> On 4/22/23 4:02 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 3:00 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 3:54 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 2:44 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 3:34 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 2:15 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 3:11 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 1:01 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 1:13 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 11:56 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 12:45 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 11:36 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 12:27 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 11:12 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 11:39 AM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 9:57 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 10:48 AM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 9:38 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 10:28 AM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 6:17 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/23 11:40 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/2023 9:45 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/23 9:41 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/2023 7:49 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/23 8:33 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G such that G is logically
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> equivalent to its own unprovability in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> *If we assume that there is such a G in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> that means that*
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G is true means there is no sequence of
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> inference steps that satisfies G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G is false means there is a sequence of
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> inference steps that satisfies G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> *Thus the above G simply does not exist in F*
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> So?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I finally learned enough model theory to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> correctly link provability to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> truth in the conventional model theory way.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Doesn't seem so, you don't seem to understand
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> the difference. You seem to confuse Truth
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> with Knowledge.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I finally approximated {G asserts its own
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> unprovability in F}
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> using conventional math symbols in their
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> conventional way.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Except that isn't what G is, you only think
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> that because you can't actually understand
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> even the outline of Godel's proof, so you
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> take pieces out of context.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G never asserts its own unprovability.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> The statement that we now have a statement
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> that asserts its own unprovablity, as a
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> simplification describing a statment DERIVED
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> from G, and that derivation happens in
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Meta-F, and is about what can be proven in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Since Godel's G isn't of that form, but
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> only can be used to derive a statment IN
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> META-F that says that G is not provable in
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F, your argument says nothing about Godel's G.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F ⊢ GF ↔ ¬ProvF (┌GF┐).
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/goedel-incompleteness/#FirIncTheCom
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I have finally created a G that is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> equivalent to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Panu Raatikainen's SEP article.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> So?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Did you read that article?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Also, you don't understand what those terms
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> mean, because G being true doesn't mean
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> there is no sequence of inference steps
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> that satisfies G in F, but there is no
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> FINITE sequence of inference steps that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> satisfies G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Because we can see that every finite or
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> infinite sequence in F that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> satisfies the RHS of ↔ contradicts the LHS a
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> powerful F can infer that G
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> is utterly unsatisfiable even for infinite
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> sequences in this more
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> powerful F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Nope. Show the PROOF.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> You don't know HOW to do a proof, you can
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> only do arguement.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G in F such that G is logically
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> equivalent to its own unprovability in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> A proof is any sequence of steps that shows
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> that its conclusion is a
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> necessary consequence of its premises.\
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Boy are you wrong.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> A proof is a FINITE sequence of steps that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> shows that a given statement is a necessary
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> consequence of the defined system.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> "Proof" doesn't have a  "Premise", it has a
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> system.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> The statement may have conditions in it
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> restricting when
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G in F such that G is logically
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> equivalent to its own unprovability in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is true then there is no sequence of
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> inference steps that satisfies G in F making G
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> untrue.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> no FINITE sequence, making G UNPROVABLE, and
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> there IS an INFINITE sequence making it TRUE.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> This is possible.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is false then there is a sequence of
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> inference steps that satisfies G in F making G
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is false, then there is a finite sequence
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> proving G, which forces G to be true, thus this
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> is a contradiction.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Because the RHS of ↔ contradicts the LHS there
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> is no such G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Thus the above G simply does not exist in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Nope, because we can have an infinite sequence
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> that isn't finite, G can be True but not Provable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is false and ↔ is true this makes the RHS
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> false which negates the RHS making it say (G ⊢
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F) which makes G true in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Right, G can't be false, but it can be True.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Thus ↔ cannot be satisfied thus no such G exists
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Why do you say that?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I don't think you know what you terms mean.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G in F such that G is true if and
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> only if G is Unprovable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Logical equality
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> p q p ↔ q
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> T T   T // G is true if and only if G is Unprovable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> T F   F //
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F T   F //
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F F   T // G is false if and only if G is Provable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Truth_table#Logical_equality
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Row(1) There exists a G in F such that G is true if
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> and only if G is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> unprovable in F making G unsatisfied thus untrue in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Row(4) There exists a G in F such that G is false if
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> and only if G is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> provable in F making G satisfied thus true in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If either Row(1) or Row(4) are unsatisfied then ↔ is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> false.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> But if neither row values can ACTUALLY EXIST, then
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> the equality is true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If either Row(1) or Row(4) cannot have the same value
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> for p and q
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> (for whatever reason) then ↔ is unsatisfied and no
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> such G exists in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> So, you don't understand how truth tables work.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> You don't need to have all the rows with true being
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> possible, you need all the rows that are possible to be
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> True.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> To the best of my knowledge
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ↔ is also known as logical equivalence meaning that the
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> LHS and the RHS
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> must always have the same truth value or ↔ is not true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Right, and for that statement, the actual G found in F,
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> the ONLY values that happen is G is ALWAYS true, an
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Unprovable is always true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Thus the equivalence is always true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I don't think that is the way that it works.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> We must assume that the RHS is true and see how that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> effects the LHS
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> We must assume that the RHS is false and see how that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> effects the LHS
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ((True(RHS) → True(LHS)) ∧ (False(RHS) → False(LHS))) ≡
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> (RHS ↔ LHS)
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> False(RHS) → True(LHS) refutes (RHS ↔ LHS)
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>> Nope, that isn't how it works.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>> Can you show me something that says that is how it works?
>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>> p ↔ q would seem to mean ((p → q) ∧ (q → p))
>>>>>>>>>>>> Here is a much clearer and conventional way of showing that
>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>> Logical implication derives logical equivalence
>>>>>>>>>>>> p---q---(p ⇒ q)---(q ⇒ p)---(q ↔ p)
>>>>>>>>>>>> T---T------T----------T---------T
>>>>>>>>>>>> T---F------F----------T---------F
>>>>>>>>>>>> F---T------T----------F---------F
>>>>>>>>>>>> F---F------T----------T---------T
>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>> So, why does the fact that the last line is never used in
>>>>>>>>>>> this case cause a problem.
>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>> I am just saying that according to the conventional rules of
>>>>>>>>>> logic the
>>>>>>>>>> above expression is simply false. There is no G that is logically
>>>>>>>>>> equivalent to its own unprovability in F.
>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>> But Godel's G satisfies that.
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>> Remember, G is the statement that there does not exist a number
>>>>>>>>> g such that g statisifes a particular Primative Recursive
>>>>>>>>> Relationship (built in Meta-F, but using only operations
>>>>>>>>> defined in F).
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>> There is no such G in F says the same thing, yet does not
>>>>>>>> falsely place
>>>>>>>> the blame on F.
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> Yes, but can you PROVE your statement? If not, you are just
>>>>>>> making unsubstantiated false claims, just like DT.
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>> I just proved it. The only gap in the proof was your lack of
>>>>>> understanding (an honest mistake not a lie) about how ↔ works.
>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> Nope, how did you prove that no such G exists? You claims that row
>>>>> 4 can't be satisfied? it doesn't need to ever be used.
>>>>
>>>> Try and prove that with a source, in the mean time I will tentatively
>>>> assume that you are wrong. I proved that I am correct with the above
>>>> truth table yet this assumes: p ↔ q means ((p → q) ∧ (q → p))
>>>>
>>>
>>>
>>> WRONG, YOU are making the claim, so YOU need to prove it.
>>>
>> I may have been mistaken when I thought that more than one row of the
>> truth table needed to be satisfied. Furthermore in retrospect this looks
>> like a dumb mistake that I did not notice as a dumb mistake until I
>> looked at the truth table for ∧. So we are back to row one.
>>
>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (F ⊬ G))
>> If the RHS is satisfied then this means that there are no inference
>> steps in F that derive G, thus G cannot be shown to be true in F.
>>
>>
>
> Nope, there is no FINITE series of infernece steps in F that derive G.
>


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Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its own unprovability in F

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<u21h47$3e09h$2@dont-email.me>
From: Rich...@Damon-Family.org (Richard Damon)
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Date: Sat, 22 Apr 2023 17:04:40 -0400
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 by: Richard Damon - Sat, 22 Apr 2023 21:04 UTC

On 4/22/23 4:47 PM, olcott wrote:
> On 4/22/2023 3:43 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>> On 4/22/23 4:39 PM, olcott wrote:
>>> On 4/22/2023 3:14 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>> On 4/22/23 4:10 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>> On 4/22/2023 3:06 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>> On 4/22/23 4:02 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 3:00 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 3:54 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 2:44 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 3:34 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 2:15 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 3:11 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 1:01 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 1:13 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 11:56 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 12:45 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 11:36 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 12:27 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 11:12 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 11:39 AM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 9:57 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 10:48 AM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 9:38 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 10:28 AM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 6:17 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/23 11:40 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/2023 9:45 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/23 9:41 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/2023 7:49 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/23 8:33 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G such that G is logically
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> equivalent to its own unprovability in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> *If we assume that there is such a G in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> that means that*
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G is true means there is no sequence of
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> inference steps that satisfies G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G is false means there is a sequence of
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> inference steps that satisfies G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> *Thus the above G simply does not exist
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> in F*
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> So?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I finally learned enough model theory to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> correctly link provability to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> truth in the conventional model theory way.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Doesn't seem so, you don't seem to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> understand the difference. You seem to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> confuse Truth with Knowledge.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I finally approximated {G asserts its own
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> unprovability in F}
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> using conventional math symbols in their
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> conventional way.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Except that isn't what G is, you only think
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> that because you can't actually understand
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> even the outline of Godel's proof, so you
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> take pieces out of context.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G never asserts its own unprovability.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> The statement that we now have a statement
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> that asserts its own unprovablity, as a
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> simplification describing a statment DERIVED
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> from G, and that derivation happens in
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Meta-F, and is about what can be proven in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Since Godel's G isn't of that form, but
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> only can be used to derive a statment IN
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> META-F that says that G is not provable in
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F, your argument says nothing about
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Godel's G.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F ⊢ GF ↔ ¬ProvF (┌GF┐).
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/goedel-incompleteness/#FirIncTheCom
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I have finally created a G that is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> equivalent to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Panu Raatikainen's SEP article.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> So?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Did you read that article?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Also, you don't understand what those
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> terms mean, because G being true doesn't
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> mean there is no sequence of inference
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> steps that satisfies G in F, but there is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> no FINITE sequence of inference steps that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> satisfies G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Because we can see that every finite or
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> infinite sequence in F that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> satisfies the RHS of ↔ contradicts the LHS
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> a powerful F can infer that G
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> is utterly unsatisfiable even for infinite
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> sequences in this more
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> powerful F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Nope. Show the PROOF.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> You don't know HOW to do a proof, you can
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> only do arguement.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G in F such that G is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> logically equivalent to its own unprovability
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> A proof is any sequence of steps that shows
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> that its conclusion is a
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> necessary consequence of its premises.\
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Boy are you wrong.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> A proof is a FINITE sequence of steps that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> shows that a given statement is a necessary
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> consequence of the defined system.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> "Proof" doesn't have a  "Premise", it has a
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> system.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> The statement may have conditions in it
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> restricting when
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G in F such that G is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> logically equivalent to its own unprovability
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is true then there is no sequence of
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> inference steps that satisfies G in F making
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G untrue.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> no FINITE sequence, making G UNPROVABLE, and
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> there IS an INFINITE sequence making it TRUE.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> This is possible.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is false then there is a sequence of
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> inference steps that satisfies G in F making
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is false, then there is a finite sequence
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> proving G, which forces G to be true, thus
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> this is a contradiction.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Because the RHS of ↔ contradicts the LHS
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> there is no such G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Thus the above G simply does not exist in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Nope, because we can have an infinite sequence
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> that isn't finite, G can be True but not
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Provable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is false and ↔ is true this makes the RHS
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> false which negates the RHS making it say (G ⊢
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F) which makes G true in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Right, G can't be false, but it can be True.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Thus ↔ cannot be satisfied thus no such G exists
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Why do you say that?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I don't think you know what you terms mean.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G in F such that G is true if and
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> only if G is Unprovable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Logical equality
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> p q p ↔ q
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> T T   T // G is true if and only if G is Unprovable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> T F   F //
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F T   F //
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F F   T // G is false if and only if G is Provable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Truth_table#Logical_equality
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Row(1) There exists a G in F such that G is true if
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> and only if G is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> unprovable in F making G unsatisfied thus untrue in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Row(4) There exists a G in F such that G is false
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> if and only if G is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> provable in F making G satisfied thus true in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If either Row(1) or Row(4) are unsatisfied then ↔
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> is false.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> But if neither row values can ACTUALLY EXIST, then
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> the equality is true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If either Row(1) or Row(4) cannot have the same value
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> for p and q
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> (for whatever reason) then ↔ is unsatisfied and no
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> such G exists in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> So, you don't understand how truth tables work.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> You don't need to have all the rows with true being
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> possible, you need all the rows that are possible to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> be True.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> To the best of my knowledge
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ↔ is also known as logical equivalence meaning that the
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> LHS and the RHS
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> must always have the same truth value or ↔ is not true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Right, and for that statement, the actual G found in F,
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> the ONLY values that happen is G is ALWAYS true, an
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Unprovable is always true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Thus the equivalence is always true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I don't think that is the way that it works.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> We must assume that the RHS is true and see how that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> effects the LHS
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> We must assume that the RHS is false and see how that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> effects the LHS
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ((True(RHS) → True(LHS)) ∧ (False(RHS) → False(LHS))) ≡
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> (RHS ↔ LHS)
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> False(RHS) → True(LHS) refutes (RHS ↔ LHS)
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Nope, that isn't how it works.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Can you show me something that says that is how it works?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>> p ↔ q would seem to mean ((p → q) ∧ (q → p))
>>>>>>>>>>>>> Here is a much clearer and conventional way of showing that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>> Logical implication derives logical equivalence
>>>>>>>>>>>>> p---q---(p ⇒ q)---(q ⇒ p)---(q ↔ p)
>>>>>>>>>>>>> T---T------T----------T---------T
>>>>>>>>>>>>> T---F------F----------T---------F
>>>>>>>>>>>>> F---T------T----------F---------F
>>>>>>>>>>>>> F---F------T----------T---------T
>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>> So, why does the fact that the last line is never used in
>>>>>>>>>>>> this case cause a problem.
>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>> I am just saying that according to the conventional rules of
>>>>>>>>>>> logic the
>>>>>>>>>>> above expression is simply false. There is no G that is
>>>>>>>>>>> logically
>>>>>>>>>>> equivalent to its own unprovability in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>> But Godel's G satisfies that.
>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>> Remember, G is the statement that there does not exist a
>>>>>>>>>> number g such that g statisifes a particular Primative
>>>>>>>>>> Recursive Relationship (built in Meta-F, but using only
>>>>>>>>>> operations defined in F).
>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>> There is no such G in F says the same thing, yet does not
>>>>>>>>> falsely place
>>>>>>>>> the blame on F.
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>> Yes, but can you PROVE your statement? If not, you are just
>>>>>>>> making unsubstantiated false claims, just like DT.
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> I just proved it. The only gap in the proof was your lack of
>>>>>>> understanding (an honest mistake not a lie) about how ↔ works.
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>> Nope, how did you prove that no such G exists? You claims that row
>>>>>> 4 can't be satisfied? it doesn't need to ever be used.
>>>>>
>>>>> Try and prove that with a source, in the mean time I will tentatively
>>>>> assume that you are wrong. I proved that I am correct with the above
>>>>> truth table yet this assumes: p ↔ q means ((p → q) ∧ (q → p))
>>>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>> WRONG, YOU are making the claim, so YOU need to prove it.
>>>>
>>> I may have been mistaken when I thought that more than one row of the
>>> truth table needed to be satisfied. Furthermore in retrospect this looks
>>> like a dumb mistake that I did not notice as a dumb mistake until I
>>> looked at the truth table for ∧. So we are back to row one.
>>>
>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (F ⊬ G))
>>> If the RHS is satisfied then this means that there are no inference
>>> steps in F that derive G, thus G cannot be shown to be true in F.
>>>
>>>
>>
>> Nope, there is no FINITE series of infernece steps in F that derive G.
>>
>
> This G cannot be shown to be true in F.


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Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its own unprovability in F

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From: polco...@gmail.com (olcott)
Newsgroups: sci.logic,sci.math,alt.philosophy,comp.theory,comp.ai.philosophy
Subject: Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its own
unprovability in F
Date: Sat, 22 Apr 2023 16:10:20 -0500
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 by: olcott - Sat, 22 Apr 2023 21:10 UTC

On 4/22/2023 4:04 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
> On 4/22/23 4:47 PM, olcott wrote:
>> On 4/22/2023 3:43 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>> On 4/22/23 4:39 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>> On 4/22/2023 3:14 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>> On 4/22/23 4:10 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 3:06 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 4:02 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 3:00 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 3:54 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 2:44 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 3:34 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 2:15 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 3:11 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 1:01 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 1:13 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 11:56 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 12:45 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 11:36 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 12:27 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 11:12 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 11:39 AM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 9:57 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 10:48 AM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 9:38 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 10:28 AM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 6:17 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/23 11:40 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/2023 9:45 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/23 9:41 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/2023 7:49 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/23 8:33 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G such that G is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> logically equivalent to its own
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> unprovability in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> *If we assume that there is such a G in
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F that means that*
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G is true means there is no sequence of
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> inference steps that satisfies G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G is false means there is a sequence of
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> inference steps that satisfies G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> *Thus the above G simply does not exist
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> in F*
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> So?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I finally learned enough model theory to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> correctly link provability to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> truth in the conventional model theory way.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Doesn't seem so, you don't seem to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> understand the difference. You seem to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> confuse Truth with Knowledge.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I finally approximated {G asserts its own
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> unprovability in F}
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> using conventional math symbols in their
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> conventional way.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Except that isn't what G is, you only think
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> that because you can't actually understand
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> even the outline of Godel's proof, so you
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> take pieces out of context.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G never asserts its own unprovability.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> The statement that we now have a statement
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> that asserts its own unprovablity, as a
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> simplification describing a statment
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> DERIVED from G, and that derivation happens
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> in Meta-F, and is about what can be proven
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Since Godel's G isn't of that form, but
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> only can be used to derive a statment IN
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> META-F that says that G is not provable
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> in F, your argument says nothing about
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Godel's G.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F ⊢ GF ↔ ¬ProvF (┌GF┐).
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/goedel-incompleteness/#FirIncTheCom
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I have finally created a G that is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> equivalent to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Panu Raatikainen's SEP article.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> So?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Did you read that article?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Also, you don't understand what those
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> terms mean, because G being true doesn't
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> mean there is no sequence of inference
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> steps that satisfies G in F, but there is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> no FINITE sequence of inference steps
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> that satisfies G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Because we can see that every finite or
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> infinite sequence in F that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> satisfies the RHS of ↔ contradicts the LHS
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> a powerful F can infer that G
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> is utterly unsatisfiable even for infinite
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> sequences in this more
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> powerful F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Nope. Show the PROOF.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> You don't know HOW to do a proof, you can
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> only do arguement.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G in F such that G is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> logically equivalent to its own
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> unprovability in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> A proof is any sequence of steps that shows
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> that its conclusion is a
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> necessary consequence of its premises.\
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Boy are you wrong.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> A proof is a FINITE sequence of steps that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> shows that a given statement is a necessary
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> consequence of the defined system.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> "Proof" doesn't have a  "Premise", it has a
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> system.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> The statement may have conditions in it
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> restricting when
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G in F such that G is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> logically equivalent to its own
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> unprovability in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is true then there is no sequence of
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> inference steps that satisfies G in F making
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G untrue.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> no FINITE sequence, making G UNPROVABLE, and
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> there IS an INFINITE sequence making it TRUE.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> This is possible.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is false then there is a sequence of
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> inference steps that satisfies G in F making
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is false, then there is a finite
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> sequence proving G, which forces G to be
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> true, thus this is a contradiction.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Because the RHS of ↔ contradicts the LHS
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> there is no such G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Thus the above G simply does not exist in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Nope, because we can have an infinite
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> sequence that isn't finite, G can be True but
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> not Provable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is false and ↔ is true this makes the RHS
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> false which negates the RHS making it say (G ⊢
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F) which makes G true in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Right, G can't be false, but it can be True.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Thus ↔ cannot be satisfied thus no such G exists
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Why do you say that?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I don't think you know what you terms mean.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G in F such that G is true if and
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> only if G is Unprovable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Logical equality
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> p q p ↔ q
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> T T   T // G is true if and only if G is Unprovable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> T F   F //
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F T   F //
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F F   T // G is false if and only if G is Provable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Truth_table#Logical_equality
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Row(1) There exists a G in F such that G is true
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> if and only if G is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> unprovable in F making G unsatisfied thus untrue
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Row(4) There exists a G in F such that G is false
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> if and only if G is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> provable in F making G satisfied thus true in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If either Row(1) or Row(4) are unsatisfied then ↔
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> is false.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> But if neither row values can ACTUALLY EXIST, then
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> the equality is true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If either Row(1) or Row(4) cannot have the same
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> value for p and q
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> (for whatever reason) then ↔ is unsatisfied and no
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> such G exists in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> So, you don't understand how truth tables work.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> You don't need to have all the rows with true being
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> possible, you need all the rows that are possible to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> be True.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> To the best of my knowledge
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ↔ is also known as logical equivalence meaning that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> the LHS and the RHS
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> must always have the same truth value or ↔ is not true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Right, and for that statement, the actual G found in F,
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> the ONLY values that happen is G is ALWAYS true, an
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Unprovable is always true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Thus the equivalence is always true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I don't think that is the way that it works.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> We must assume that the RHS is true and see how that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> effects the LHS
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> We must assume that the RHS is false and see how that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> effects the LHS
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ((True(RHS) → True(LHS)) ∧ (False(RHS) → False(LHS))) ≡
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> (RHS ↔ LHS)
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> False(RHS) → True(LHS) refutes (RHS ↔ LHS)
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Nope, that isn't how it works.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Can you show me something that says that is how it works?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> p ↔ q would seem to mean ((p → q) ∧ (q → p))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Here is a much clearer and conventional way of showing that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Logical implication derives logical equivalence
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> p---q---(p ⇒ q)---(q ⇒ p)---(q ↔ p)
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> T---T------T----------T---------T
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> T---F------F----------T---------F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F---T------T----------F---------F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F---F------T----------T---------T
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>> So, why does the fact that the last line is never used in
>>>>>>>>>>>>> this case cause a problem.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>> I am just saying that according to the conventional rules of
>>>>>>>>>>>> logic the
>>>>>>>>>>>> above expression is simply false. There is no G that is
>>>>>>>>>>>> logically
>>>>>>>>>>>> equivalent to its own unprovability in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>> But Godel's G satisfies that.
>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>> Remember, G is the statement that there does not exist a
>>>>>>>>>>> number g such that g statisifes a particular Primative
>>>>>>>>>>> Recursive Relationship (built in Meta-F, but using only
>>>>>>>>>>> operations defined in F).
>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>> There is no such G in F says the same thing, yet does not
>>>>>>>>>> falsely place
>>>>>>>>>> the blame on F.
>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>> Yes, but can you PROVE your statement? If not, you are just
>>>>>>>>> making unsubstantiated false claims, just like DT.
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>> I just proved it. The only gap in the proof was your lack of
>>>>>>>> understanding (an honest mistake not a lie) about how ↔ works.
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> Nope, how did you prove that no such G exists? You claims that
>>>>>>> row 4 can't be satisfied? it doesn't need to ever be used.
>>>>>>
>>>>>> Try and prove that with a source, in the mean time I will tentatively
>>>>>> assume that you are wrong. I proved that I am correct with the above
>>>>>> truth table yet this assumes: p ↔ q means ((p → q) ∧ (q → p))
>>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> WRONG, YOU are making the claim, so YOU need to prove it.
>>>>>
>>>> I may have been mistaken when I thought that more than one row of the
>>>> truth table needed to be satisfied. Furthermore in retrospect this
>>>> looks
>>>> like a dumb mistake that I did not notice as a dumb mistake until I
>>>> looked at the truth table for ∧. So we are back to row one.
>>>>
>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (F ⊬ G))
>>>> If the RHS is satisfied then this means that there are no inference
>>>> steps in F that derive G, thus G cannot be shown to be true in F.
>>>>
>>>>
>>>
>>> Nope, there is no FINITE series of infernece steps in F that derive G.
>>>
>>
>> This G cannot be shown to be true in F.
>
> It can't be PROVEN in F, but it can be PROVEN to be true in F with a
> proof in Meta-F
>
> You just don't seem to understand how these Meta-systems work.
>


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Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its own unprovability in F

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Subject: Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its own
unprovability in F
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Newsgroups: sci.logic,sci.math,alt.philosophy,comp.theory,comp.ai.philosophy
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From: Rich...@Damon-Family.org (Richard Damon)
In-Reply-To: <u21ift$3e7ii$2@dont-email.me>
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Date: Sat, 22 Apr 2023 17:26:47 -0400
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 by: Richard Damon - Sat, 22 Apr 2023 21:26 UTC

On 4/22/23 5:10 PM, olcott wrote:
> On 4/22/2023 4:04 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>> On 4/22/23 4:47 PM, olcott wrote:
>>> On 4/22/2023 3:43 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>> On 4/22/23 4:39 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>> On 4/22/2023 3:14 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>> On 4/22/23 4:10 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 3:06 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 4:02 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 3:00 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 3:54 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 2:44 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 3:34 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 2:15 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 3:11 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 1:01 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 1:13 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 11:56 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 12:45 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 11:36 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 12:27 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 11:12 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 11:39 AM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 9:57 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 10:48 AM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 9:38 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 10:28 AM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 6:17 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/23 11:40 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/2023 9:45 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/23 9:41 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/2023 7:49 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/23 8:33 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G such that G is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> logically equivalent to its own
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> unprovability in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> *If we assume that there is such a G in
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F that means that*
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G is true means there is no sequence of
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> inference steps that satisfies G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G is false means there is a sequence of
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> inference steps that satisfies G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> *Thus the above G simply does not exist
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> in F*
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> So?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I finally learned enough model theory to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> correctly link provability to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> truth in the conventional model theory way.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Doesn't seem so, you don't seem to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> understand the difference. You seem to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> confuse Truth with Knowledge.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I finally approximated {G asserts its own
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> unprovability in F}
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> using conventional math symbols in their
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> conventional way.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Except that isn't what G is, you only
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> think that because you can't actually
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> understand even the outline of Godel's
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> proof, so you take pieces out of context.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G never asserts its own unprovability.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> The statement that we now have a statement
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> that asserts its own unprovablity, as a
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> simplification describing a statment
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> DERIVED from G, and that derivation
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> happens in Meta-F, and is about what can
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> be proven in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Since Godel's G isn't of that form, but
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> only can be used to derive a statment IN
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> META-F that says that G is not provable
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> in F, your argument says nothing about
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Godel's G.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F ⊢ GF ↔ ¬ProvF (┌GF┐).
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/goedel-incompleteness/#FirIncTheCom
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I have finally created a G that is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> equivalent to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Panu Raatikainen's SEP article.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> So?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Did you read that article?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Also, you don't understand what those
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> terms mean, because G being true doesn't
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> mean there is no sequence of inference
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> steps that satisfies G in F, but there
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> is no FINITE sequence of inference steps
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> that satisfies G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Because we can see that every finite or
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> infinite sequence in F that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> satisfies the RHS of ↔ contradicts the
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> LHS a powerful F can infer that G
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> is utterly unsatisfiable even for
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> infinite sequences in this more
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> powerful F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Nope. Show the PROOF.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> You don't know HOW to do a proof, you can
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> only do arguement.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G in F such that G is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> logically equivalent to its own
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> unprovability in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> A proof is any sequence of steps that shows
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> that its conclusion is a
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> necessary consequence of its premises.\
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Boy are you wrong.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> A proof is a FINITE sequence of steps that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> shows that a given statement is a necessary
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> consequence of the defined system.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> "Proof" doesn't have a  "Premise", it has a
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> system.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> The statement may have conditions in it
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> restricting when
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G in F such that G is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> logically equivalent to its own
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> unprovability in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is true then there is no sequence of
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> inference steps that satisfies G in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> making G untrue.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> no FINITE sequence, making G UNPROVABLE, and
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> there IS an INFINITE sequence making it TRUE.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> This is possible.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is false then there is a sequence of
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> inference steps that satisfies G in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> making G true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is false, then there is a finite
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> sequence proving G, which forces G to be
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> true, thus this is a contradiction.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Because the RHS of ↔ contradicts the LHS
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> there is no such G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Thus the above G simply does not exist in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Nope, because we can have an infinite
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> sequence that isn't finite, G can be True
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> but not Provable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is false and ↔ is true this makes the
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> RHS false which negates the RHS making it say
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> (G ⊢ F) which makes G true in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Right, G can't be false, but it can be True.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Thus ↔ cannot be satisfied thus no such G
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> exists in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Why do you say that?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I don't think you know what you terms mean.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G in F such that G is true if and
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> only if G is Unprovable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Logical equality
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> p q p ↔ q
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> T T   T // G is true if and only if G is Unprovable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> T F   F //
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F T   F //
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F F   T // G is false if and only if G is Provable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Truth_table#Logical_equality
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Row(1) There exists a G in F such that G is true
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> if and only if G is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> unprovable in F making G unsatisfied thus untrue
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Row(4) There exists a G in F such that G is false
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> if and only if G is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> provable in F making G satisfied thus true in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If either Row(1) or Row(4) are unsatisfied then ↔
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> is false.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> But if neither row values can ACTUALLY EXIST, then
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> the equality is true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If either Row(1) or Row(4) cannot have the same
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> value for p and q
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> (for whatever reason) then ↔ is unsatisfied and no
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> such G exists in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> So, you don't understand how truth tables work.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> You don't need to have all the rows with true being
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> possible, you need all the rows that are possible to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> be True.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> To the best of my knowledge
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ↔ is also known as logical equivalence meaning that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> the LHS and the RHS
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> must always have the same truth value or ↔ is not true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Right, and for that statement, the actual G found in
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F, the ONLY values that happen is G is ALWAYS true, an
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Unprovable is always true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Thus the equivalence is always true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I don't think that is the way that it works.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> We must assume that the RHS is true and see how that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> effects the LHS
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> We must assume that the RHS is false and see how that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> effects the LHS
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ((True(RHS) → True(LHS)) ∧ (False(RHS) → False(LHS))) ≡
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> (RHS ↔ LHS)
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> False(RHS) → True(LHS) refutes (RHS ↔ LHS)
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Nope, that isn't how it works.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Can you show me something that says that is how it works?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> p ↔ q would seem to mean ((p → q) ∧ (q → p))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Here is a much clearer and conventional way of showing that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Logical implication derives logical equivalence
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> p---q---(p ⇒ q)---(q ⇒ p)---(q ↔ p)
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> T---T------T----------T---------T
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> T---F------F----------T---------F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F---T------T----------F---------F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F---F------T----------T---------T
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> So, why does the fact that the last line is never used in
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> this case cause a problem.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>> I am just saying that according to the conventional rules
>>>>>>>>>>>>> of logic the
>>>>>>>>>>>>> above expression is simply false. There is no G that is
>>>>>>>>>>>>> logically
>>>>>>>>>>>>> equivalent to its own unprovability in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>> But Godel's G satisfies that.
>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>> Remember, G is the statement that there does not exist a
>>>>>>>>>>>> number g such that g statisifes a particular Primative
>>>>>>>>>>>> Recursive Relationship (built in Meta-F, but using only
>>>>>>>>>>>> operations defined in F).
>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>> There is no such G in F says the same thing, yet does not
>>>>>>>>>>> falsely place
>>>>>>>>>>> the blame on F.
>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>> Yes, but can you PROVE your statement? If not, you are just
>>>>>>>>>> making unsubstantiated false claims, just like DT.
>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>> I just proved it. The only gap in the proof was your lack of
>>>>>>>>> understanding (an honest mistake not a lie) about how ↔ works.
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>> Nope, how did you prove that no such G exists? You claims that
>>>>>>>> row 4 can't be satisfied? it doesn't need to ever be used.
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> Try and prove that with a source, in the mean time I will
>>>>>>> tentatively
>>>>>>> assume that you are wrong. I proved that I am correct with the above
>>>>>>> truth table yet this assumes: p ↔ q means ((p → q) ∧ (q → p))
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>> WRONG, YOU are making the claim, so YOU need to prove it.
>>>>>>
>>>>> I may have been mistaken when I thought that more than one row of the
>>>>> truth table needed to be satisfied. Furthermore in retrospect this
>>>>> looks
>>>>> like a dumb mistake that I did not notice as a dumb mistake until I
>>>>> looked at the truth table for ∧. So we are back to row one.
>>>>>
>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (F ⊬ G))
>>>>> If the RHS is satisfied then this means that there are no inference
>>>>> steps in F that derive G, thus G cannot be shown to be true in F.
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>
>>>> Nope, there is no FINITE series of infernece steps in F that derive G.
>>>>
>>>
>>> This G cannot be shown to be true in F.
>>
>> It can't be PROVEN in F, but it can be PROVEN to be true in F with a
>> proof in Meta-F
>>
>> You just don't seem to understand how these Meta-systems work.
>>
>
> If G cannot be satisfied in F then G is not true in F.
>
>


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Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its own unprovability in F

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From: polco...@gmail.com (olcott)
Newsgroups: sci.logic,sci.math,alt.philosophy,comp.theory,comp.ai.philosophy
Subject: Re: There exists a G such that G is logically equivalent to its own
unprovability in F
Date: Sat, 22 Apr 2023 16:34:02 -0500
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In-Reply-To: <riY0M.509417$Ldj8.480188@fx47.iad>
 by: olcott - Sat, 22 Apr 2023 21:34 UTC

On 4/22/2023 4:26 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
> On 4/22/23 5:10 PM, olcott wrote:
>> On 4/22/2023 4:04 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>> On 4/22/23 4:47 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>> On 4/22/2023 3:43 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>> On 4/22/23 4:39 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 3:14 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 4:10 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 3:06 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 4:02 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 3:00 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 3:54 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 2:44 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 3:34 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 2:15 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 3:11 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 1:01 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 1:13 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 11:56 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 12:45 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 11:36 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 12:27 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 11:12 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 11:39 AM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 9:57 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 10:48 AM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 9:38 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 10:28 AM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 6:17 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/23 11:40 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/2023 9:45 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/23 9:41 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/2023 7:49 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/23 8:33 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G such that G is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> logically equivalent to its own
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> unprovability in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> *If we assume that there is such a G
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> in F that means that*
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G is true means there is no sequence
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> of inference steps that satisfies G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G is false means there is a sequence
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> of inference steps that satisfies G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> *Thus the above G simply does not
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> exist in F*
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> So?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I finally learned enough model theory to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> correctly link provability to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> truth in the conventional model theory way.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Doesn't seem so, you don't seem to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> understand the difference. You seem to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> confuse Truth with Knowledge.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I finally approximated {G asserts its
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> own unprovability in F}
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> using conventional math symbols in their
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> conventional way.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Except that isn't what G is, you only
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> think that because you can't actually
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> understand even the outline of Godel's
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> proof, so you take pieces out of context.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G never asserts its own unprovability.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> The statement that we now have a
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> statement that asserts its own
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> unprovablity, as a simplification
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> describing a statment DERIVED from G, and
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> that derivation happens in Meta-F, and is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> about what can be proven in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Since Godel's G isn't of that form, but
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> only can be used to derive a statment
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> IN META-F that says that G is not
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> provable in F, your argument says
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> nothing about Godel's G.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F ⊢ GF ↔ ¬ProvF (┌GF┐).
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/goedel-incompleteness/#FirIncTheCom
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I have finally created a G that is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> equivalent to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Panu Raatikainen's SEP article.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> So?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Did you read that article?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Also, you don't understand what those
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> terms mean, because G being true
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> doesn't mean there is no sequence of
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> inference steps that satisfies G in F,
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> but there is no FINITE sequence of
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> inference steps that satisfies G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Because we can see that every finite or
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> infinite sequence in F that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> satisfies the RHS of ↔ contradicts the
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> LHS a powerful F can infer that G
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> is utterly unsatisfiable even for
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> infinite sequences in this more
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> powerful F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Nope. Show the PROOF.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> You don't know HOW to do a proof, you can
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> only do arguement.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G in F such that G is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> logically equivalent to its own
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> unprovability in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> A proof is any sequence of steps that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> shows that its conclusion is a
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> necessary consequence of its premises.\
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Boy are you wrong.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> A proof is a FINITE sequence of steps that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> shows that a given statement is a necessary
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> consequence of the defined system.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> "Proof" doesn't have a  "Premise", it has a
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> system.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> The statement may have conditions in it
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> restricting when
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G in F such that G is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> logically equivalent to its own
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> unprovability in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is true then there is no sequence of
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> inference steps that satisfies G in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> making G untrue.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> no FINITE sequence, making G UNPROVABLE,
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> and there IS an INFINITE sequence making it
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> TRUE.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> This is possible.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is false then there is a sequence of
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> inference steps that satisfies G in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> making G true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is false, then there is a finite
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> sequence proving G, which forces G to be
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> true, thus this is a contradiction.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Because the RHS of ↔ contradicts the LHS
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> there is no such G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Thus the above G simply does not exist in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Nope, because we can have an infinite
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> sequence that isn't finite, G can be True
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> but not Provable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is false and ↔ is true this makes the
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> RHS false which negates the RHS making it
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> say (G ⊢ F) which makes G true in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Right, G can't be false, but it can be True.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Thus ↔ cannot be satisfied thus no such G
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> exists in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Why do you say that?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I don't think you know what you terms mean.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G in F such that G is true if
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> and only if G is Unprovable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Logical equality
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> p q p ↔ q
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> T T   T // G is true if and only if G is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Unprovable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> T F   F //
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F T   F //
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F F   T // G is false if and only if G is Provable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Truth_table#Logical_equality
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Row(1) There exists a G in F such that G is true
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> if and only if G is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> unprovable in F making G unsatisfied thus untrue
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Row(4) There exists a G in F such that G is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> false if and only if G is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> provable in F making G satisfied thus true in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If either Row(1) or Row(4) are unsatisfied then
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ↔ is false.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> But if neither row values can ACTUALLY EXIST,
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> then the equality is true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If either Row(1) or Row(4) cannot have the same
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> value for p and q
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> (for whatever reason) then ↔ is unsatisfied and no
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> such G exists in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> So, you don't understand how truth tables work.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> You don't need to have all the rows with true being
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> possible, you need all the rows that are possible
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> to be True.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> To the best of my knowledge
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ↔ is also known as logical equivalence meaning that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> the LHS and the RHS
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> must always have the same truth value or ↔ is not true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Right, and for that statement, the actual G found in
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F, the ONLY values that happen is G is ALWAYS true,
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> an Unprovable is always true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Thus the equivalence is always true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I don't think that is the way that it works.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> We must assume that the RHS is true and see how that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> effects the LHS
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> We must assume that the RHS is false and see how that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> effects the LHS
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ((True(RHS) → True(LHS)) ∧ (False(RHS) → False(LHS)))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ≡ (RHS ↔ LHS)
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> False(RHS) → True(LHS) refutes (RHS ↔ LHS)
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Nope, that isn't how it works.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Can you show me something that says that is how it works?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> p ↔ q would seem to mean ((p → q) ∧ (q → p))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Here is a much clearer and conventional way of showing that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Logical implication derives logical equivalence
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> p---q---(p ⇒ q)---(q ⇒ p)---(q ↔ p)
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> T---T------T----------T---------T
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> T---F------F----------T---------F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F---T------T----------F---------F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F---F------T----------T---------T
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> So, why does the fact that the last line is never used in
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> this case cause a problem.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I am just saying that according to the conventional rules
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> of logic the
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> above expression is simply false. There is no G that is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> logically
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> equivalent to its own unprovability in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>> But Godel's G satisfies that.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>> Remember, G is the statement that there does not exist a
>>>>>>>>>>>>> number g such that g statisifes a particular Primative
>>>>>>>>>>>>> Recursive Relationship (built in Meta-F, but using only
>>>>>>>>>>>>> operations defined in F).
>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>> There is no such G in F says the same thing, yet does not
>>>>>>>>>>>> falsely place
>>>>>>>>>>>> the blame on F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>> Yes, but can you PROVE your statement? If not, you are just
>>>>>>>>>>> making unsubstantiated false claims, just like DT.
>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>> I just proved it. The only gap in the proof was your lack of
>>>>>>>>>> understanding (an honest mistake not a lie) about how ↔ works.
>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>> Nope, how did you prove that no such G exists? You claims that
>>>>>>>>> row 4 can't be satisfied? it doesn't need to ever be used.
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>> Try and prove that with a source, in the mean time I will
>>>>>>>> tentatively
>>>>>>>> assume that you are wrong. I proved that I am correct with the
>>>>>>>> above
>>>>>>>> truth table yet this assumes: p ↔ q means ((p → q) ∧ (q → p))
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> WRONG, YOU are making the claim, so YOU need to prove it.
>>>>>>>
>>>>>> I may have been mistaken when I thought that more than one row of the
>>>>>> truth table needed to be satisfied. Furthermore in retrospect this
>>>>>> looks
>>>>>> like a dumb mistake that I did not notice as a dumb mistake until I
>>>>>> looked at the truth table for ∧. So we are back to row one.
>>>>>>
>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (F ⊬ G))
>>>>>> If the RHS is satisfied then this means that there are no
>>>>>> inference steps in F that derive G, thus G cannot be shown to be
>>>>>> true in F.
>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> Nope, there is no FINITE series of infernece steps in F that derive G.
>>>>>
>>>>
>>>> This G cannot be shown to be true in F.
>>>
>>> It can't be PROVEN in F, but it can be PROVEN to be true in F with a
>>> proof in Meta-F
>>>
>>> You just don't seem to understand how these Meta-systems work.
>>>
>>
>> If G cannot be satisfied in F then G is not true in F.
>>
>>
>
> Who says G can not be satisified in F?
>


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From: Rich...@Damon-Family.org (Richard Damon)
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Date: Sat, 22 Apr 2023 17:51:53 -0400
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 by: Richard Damon - Sat, 22 Apr 2023 21:51 UTC

On 4/22/23 5:34 PM, olcott wrote:
> On 4/22/2023 4:26 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>> On 4/22/23 5:10 PM, olcott wrote:
>>> On 4/22/2023 4:04 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>> On 4/22/23 4:47 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>> On 4/22/2023 3:43 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>> On 4/22/23 4:39 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 3:14 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 4:10 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 3:06 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 4:02 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 3:00 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 3:54 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 2:44 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 3:34 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 2:15 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 3:11 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 1:01 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 1:13 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 11:56 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 12:45 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 11:36 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 12:27 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 11:12 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 11:39 AM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 9:57 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 10:48 AM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 9:38 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/23 10:28 AM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/22/2023 6:17 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/23 11:40 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/2023 9:45 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/23 9:41 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/2023 7:49 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> On 4/21/23 8:33 PM, olcott wrote:
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G such that G is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> logically equivalent to its own
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> unprovability in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> *If we assume that there is such a G
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> in F that means that*
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G is true means there is no sequence
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> of inference steps that satisfies G
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G is false means there is a sequence
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> of inference steps that satisfies G
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> *Thus the above G simply does not
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> exist in F*
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> So?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I finally learned enough model theory
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> to correctly link provability to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> truth in the conventional model theory
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> way.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Doesn't seem so, you don't seem to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> understand the difference. You seem to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> confuse Truth with Knowledge.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I finally approximated {G asserts its
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> own unprovability in F}
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> using conventional math symbols in
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> their conventional way.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Except that isn't what G is, you only
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> think that because you can't actually
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> understand even the outline of Godel's
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> proof, so you take pieces out of context.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> G never asserts its own unprovability.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> The statement that we now have a
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> statement that asserts its own
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> unprovablity, as a simplification
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> describing a statment DERIVED from G,
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> and that derivation happens in Meta-F,
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> and is about what can be proven in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Since Godel's G isn't of that form,
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> but only can be used to derive a
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> statment IN META-F that says that G is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> not provable in F, your argument says
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> nothing about Godel's G.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F ⊢ GF ↔ ¬ProvF (┌GF┐).
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/goedel-incompleteness/#FirIncTheCom
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I have finally created a G that is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> equivalent to
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Panu Raatikainen's SEP article.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> So?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Did you read that article?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Also, you don't understand what those
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> terms mean, because G being true
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> doesn't mean there is no sequence of
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> inference steps that satisfies G in F,
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> but there is no FINITE sequence of
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> inference steps that satisfies G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Because we can see that every finite or
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> infinite sequence in F that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> satisfies the RHS of ↔ contradicts the
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> LHS a powerful F can infer that G
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> is utterly unsatisfiable even for
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> infinite sequences in this more
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> powerful F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Nope. Show the PROOF.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> You don't know HOW to do a proof, you
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> can only do arguement.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G in F such that G is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> logically equivalent to its own
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> unprovability in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> A proof is any sequence of steps that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> shows that its conclusion is a
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> necessary consequence of its premises.\
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Boy are you wrong.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> A proof is a FINITE sequence of steps that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> shows that a given statement is a
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> necessary consequence of the defined system.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> "Proof" doesn't have a  "Premise", it has
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> a system.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> The statement may have conditions in it
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> restricting when
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G in F such that G is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> logically equivalent to its own
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> unprovability in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is true then there is no sequence of
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> inference steps that satisfies G in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> making G untrue.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> no FINITE sequence, making G UNPROVABLE,
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> and there IS an INFINITE sequence making
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> it TRUE.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> This is possible.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is false then there is a sequence of
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> inference steps that satisfies G in F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> making G true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is false, then there is a finite
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> sequence proving G, which forces G to be
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> true, thus this is a contradiction.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Because the RHS of ↔ contradicts the LHS
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> there is no such G in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Thus the above G simply does not exist in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Nope, because we can have an infinite
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> sequence that isn't finite, G can be True
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> but not Provable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If G is false and ↔ is true this makes the
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> RHS false which negates the RHS making it
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> say (G ⊢ F) which makes G true in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Right, G can't be false, but it can be True.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Thus ↔ cannot be satisfied thus no such G
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> exists in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Why do you say that?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I don't think you know what you terms mean.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> There exists a G in F such that G is true if
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> and only if G is Unprovable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Logical equality
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> p q p ↔ q
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> T T   T // G is true if and only if G is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Unprovable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> T F   F //
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F T   F //
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F F   T // G is false if and only if G is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Provable.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Truth_table#Logical_equality
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Row(1) There exists a G in F such that G is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> true if and only if G is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> unprovable in F making G unsatisfied thus
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> untrue in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Row(4) There exists a G in F such that G is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> false if and only if G is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> provable in F making G satisfied thus true in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If either Row(1) or Row(4) are unsatisfied then
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ↔ is false.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> But if neither row values can ACTUALLY EXIST,
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> then the equality is true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> If either Row(1) or Row(4) cannot have the same
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> value for p and q
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> (for whatever reason) then ↔ is unsatisfied and
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> no such G exists in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> So, you don't understand how truth tables work.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> You don't need to have all the rows with true
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> being possible, you need all the rows that are
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> possible to be True.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> To the best of my knowledge
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ↔ is also known as logical equivalence meaning that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> the LHS and the RHS
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> must always have the same truth value or ↔ is not
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Right, and for that statement, the actual G found in
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F, the ONLY values that happen is G is ALWAYS true,
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> an Unprovable is always true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Thus the equivalence is always true.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I don't think that is the way that it works.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> We must assume that the RHS is true and see how that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> effects the LHS
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> We must assume that the RHS is false and see how that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> effects the LHS
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ((True(RHS) → True(LHS)) ∧ (False(RHS) → False(LHS)))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ≡ (RHS ↔ LHS)
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> False(RHS) → True(LHS) refutes (RHS ↔ LHS)
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Nope, that isn't how it works.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Can you show me something that says that is how it works?
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> p ↔ q would seem to mean ((p → q) ∧ (q → p))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Here is a much clearer and conventional way of showing
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> that
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Logical implication derives logical equivalence
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> p---q---(p ⇒ q)---(q ⇒ p)---(q ↔ p)
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> T---T------T----------T---------T
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> T---F------F----------T---------F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F---T------T----------F---------F
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> F---F------T----------T---------T
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> So, why does the fact that the last line is never used
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> in this case cause a problem.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (G ⊬ F))
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> I am just saying that according to the conventional rules
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> of logic the
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> above expression is simply false. There is no G that is
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> logically
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> equivalent to its own unprovability in F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> But Godel's G satisfies that.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Remember, G is the statement that there does not exist a
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> number g such that g statisifes a particular Primative
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> Recursive Relationship (built in Meta-F, but using only
>>>>>>>>>>>>>> operations defined in F).
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>> There is no such G in F says the same thing, yet does not
>>>>>>>>>>>>> falsely place
>>>>>>>>>>>>> the blame on F.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>> Yes, but can you PROVE your statement? If not, you are just
>>>>>>>>>>>> making unsubstantiated false claims, just like DT.
>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>> I just proved it. The only gap in the proof was your lack of
>>>>>>>>>>> understanding (an honest mistake not a lie) about how ↔ works.
>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>> Nope, how did you prove that no such G exists? You claims that
>>>>>>>>>> row 4 can't be satisfied? it doesn't need to ever be used.
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>> Try and prove that with a source, in the mean time I will
>>>>>>>>> tentatively
>>>>>>>>> assume that you are wrong. I proved that I am correct with the
>>>>>>>>> above
>>>>>>>>> truth table yet this assumes: p ↔ q means ((p → q) ∧ (q → p))
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>> WRONG, YOU are making the claim, so YOU need to prove it.
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> I may have been mistaken when I thought that more than one row of
>>>>>>> the
>>>>>>> truth table needed to be satisfied. Furthermore in retrospect
>>>>>>> this looks
>>>>>>> like a dumb mistake that I did not notice as a dumb mistake until I
>>>>>>> looked at the truth table for ∧. So we are back to row one.
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> ∃G ∈ F (G ↔ (F ⊬ G))
>>>>>>> If the RHS is satisfied then this means that there are no
>>>>>>> inference steps in F that derive G, thus G cannot be shown to be
>>>>>>> true in F.
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>> Nope, there is no FINITE series of infernece steps in F that
>>>>>> derive G.
>>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> This G cannot be shown to be true in F.
>>>>
>>>> It can't be PROVEN in F, but it can be PROVEN to be true in F with a
>>>> proof in Meta-F
>>>>
>>>> You just don't seem to understand how these Meta-systems work.
>>>>
>>>
>>> If G cannot be satisfied in F then G is not true in F.
>>>
>>>
>>
>> Who says G can not be satisified in F?
>>
>
> To derive G in F requires a set of inference steps in F that proves that
> these same inference steps do not exist in F.


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